a client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations which intervention should the nurse implement first
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health Practice B

1. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The initial intervention for a client experiencing auditory hallucinations, especially in schizophrenia, is to assess the content of the hallucinations. By asking the client to describe the hallucinations, the nurse can determine if they are command hallucinations that might pose a risk. This assessment is crucial in guiding further appropriate interventions to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Instructing the client to ignore the hallucinations (Choice B) may not be effective, as the hallucinations are real to the client. Administering antipsychotic medication (Choice C) may be necessary but should come after assessing the situation. Engaging the client in reality-based activities (Choice D) is important but not the first priority when dealing with auditory hallucinations.

2. April, a 10-year-old admitted to inpatient pediatric care, has been getting more and more wound up and is losing self-control in the day room. Time-out does not appear to be an effective tool for April to engage in self-reflection. April's mother admits to putting her in time-out up to 20 times a day. The nurse recognizes that:

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Frequent use of time-out has reduced its effectiveness as a therapeutic measure for April.

3. Which characteristic identified during an assessment serves to support a diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder? Select one that doesn't apply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Characteristics such as age, frequency of outbursts, and occurrence in multiple settings support a diagnosis of disruptive mood dysregulation disorder. While comorbid conditions like autism can coexist with disruptive mood dysregulation disorder, it is not a characteristic that serves to support a diagnosis of this specific disorder.

4. Tammy, a 28-year-old with major depressive disorder and bulimia nervosa, is ready for discharge from the county hospital after 2 weeks of inpatient therapy. Tammy is taking citalopram (Celexa) and reports that it has made her feel more hopeful. With a secondary diagnosis of bulimia nervosa, what is an alternative antidepressant to consider?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Fluoxetine (Prozac) is a suitable alternative antidepressant for Tammy due to its approval for the treatment of bulimia nervosa. It belongs to the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class of antidepressants, similar to citalopram, which Tammy is already taking. Fluoxetine has shown efficacy in treating bulimia nervosa and can be a beneficial choice for individuals with this condition.

5. Which statement made by the patient demonstrates an understanding of the effective use of newly prescribed lithium to manage bipolar mania? Select one that doesn't apply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Proper hydration, discussing other medications, and taking lithium with or without food are important for effective and safe use of lithium. However, lithium is not prescribed for weight loss, and its usage should not be associated with losing extra pounds.

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