ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Practice B
1. What intervention should the nurse implement for a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) performing ritualistic handwashing?
- A. Allow the client to continue the ritualistic behavior initially
- B. Immediately stop the client from performing the ritual
- C. Encourage the client to perform the ritual more quickly
- D. Provide a distraction to interrupt the ritual
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For a client with OCD performing ritualistic handwashing, the nurse should initially allow the client to continue the behavior. Abruptly stopping the behavior or providing a distraction can heighten the client's anxiety. Encouraging the client to perform the ritual more quickly does not address the underlying issue of OCD and may exacerbate their anxiety. Providing a distraction to interrupt the ritual may not be effective in the long term and could lead to increased distress. Gradual limits should be established over time to help the client manage and reduce the ritualistic behavior effectively.
2. A nurse is reviewing prescriptions for a patient with major depression at the county clinic. Since the patient has a mild intellectual disability, the nurse would question which classification of antidepressant drugs:
- A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors
- B. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors
- C. Serotonin and norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Monoamine oxidase inhibitors are less suitable for patients with intellectual disabilities due to the need for dietary restrictions and close monitoring. These restrictions can be challenging for patients with mild intellectual disabilities to follow, making this drug class a concern for this patient population.
3. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a depressive episode. Which of the following interventions should the nurse avoid implementing?
- A. Encourage participation in activities
- B. Promote adequate nutrition and hydration
- C. Monitor for suicidal ideation
- D. Discourage verbalization of feelings
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In caring for a client with bipolar disorder in a depressive episode, the nurse should implement interventions that promote mental well-being. Encouraging participation in activities, promoting adequate nutrition and hydration, and monitoring for suicidal ideation are all essential components of care. Discouraging verbalization of feelings is counterproductive as it hinders the therapeutic process and communication, which are crucial for the client's emotional expression and recovery.
4. Which of the following statements about the DSM-5 is inaccurate?
- A. It includes specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders.
- B. It is used by mental health professionals to guide diagnosis.
- C. It provides a classification system for mental disorders.
- D. It includes guidelines for the treatment of mental disorders.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The DSM-5 is a diagnostic tool that provides specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders, is utilized by mental health professionals to guide diagnosis, and offers a systematic classification of mental disorders. The statement that the DSM-5 includes guidelines for the treatment of mental disorders is inaccurate. The primary focus of the DSM-5 is on diagnosis and classification, not treatment. Therefore, choice D is the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C accurately describe the purpose and functions of the DSM-5.
5. Which medication would the nurse least likely use to provide immediate intervention for an angry psychotic client?
- A. Lithium
- B. Alprazolam
- C. Diphenhydramine
- D. Haloperidol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Alprazolam is a benzodiazepine commonly used for anxiety disorders. While it may help calm an individual, it is not typically the first-line choice for managing acute agitation in a psychotic client. Haloperidol, on the other hand, is a typical antipsychotic medication often used for immediate intervention in psychiatric emergencies involving aggression or psychosis.
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