Nursing Elites

1. What intervention should the nurse implement for a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) performing ritualistic handwashing?

• A. Allow the client to continue the ritualistic behavior initially
• B. Immediately stop the client from performing the ritual
• C. Encourage the client to perform the ritual more quickly
• D. Provide a distraction to interrupt the ritual

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For a client with OCD performing ritualistic handwashing, the nurse should initially allow the client to continue the behavior. Abruptly stopping the behavior or providing a distraction can heighten the client's anxiety. Encouraging the client to perform the ritual more quickly does not address the underlying issue of OCD and may exacerbate their anxiety. Providing a distraction to interrupt the ritual may not be effective in the long term and could lead to increased distress. Gradual limits should be established over time to help the client manage and reduce the ritualistic behavior effectively.

2. A client has a history of excessive drinking, which has led to multiple arrests for driving under the influence (DUI). The client states, 'I work hard to provide for my family. I don't see why I can't drink to relax.' The nurse recognizes the use of which defense mechanism?

• A. Projection
• B. Rationalization
• C. Regression
• D. Sublimation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should recognize that the client is using rationalization, a common defense mechanism. Rationalization involves creating logical reasons to justify unacceptable feelings or behaviors. In this scenario, the client is justifying excessive drinking by linking it to hard work and the need for relaxation, masking the true underlying issue of alcohol abuse. Projection involves attributing one's thoughts or feelings to others, regression involves reverting to an earlier stage of development, and sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities, none of which are demonstrated in the client's statement.

3. A patient with schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone. The nurse should monitor the patient for which common side effect of this medication?

• A. Agranulocytosis
• B. Weight gain
• C. Hair loss
• D. Hyperthyroidism

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a patient is prescribed risperidone, an atypical antipsychotic, the nurse should monitor for weight gain as it is a common side effect of this medication. Weight gain can occur due to metabolic changes and increased appetite associated with risperidone use. Agranulocytosis is a severe decrease in a type of white blood cells, and it is not a common side effect of risperidone. Hair loss and hyperthyroidism are also not typically associated with risperidone use.

4. A client has experienced the death of a close family member and at the same time becomes unemployed. This situation has resulted in a 6-month score of 110 on the Recent Life Changes Questionnaire. How should the nurse evaluate this client data?

• A. The client is experiencing severe distress and is at risk for physical and psychological illness.
• B. A score of 110 on the Miller and Rahe Recent Life Changes Questionnaire indicates no significant threat of stress-related illness.
• C. Susceptibility to stress-related physical or psychological illness cannot be estimated without knowledge of coping resources and available supports.
• D. The client may view these losses as challenges and perceive them as opportunities.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The Recent Life Changes Questionnaire is an expanded version of the Schedule of Recent Experiences and the Rahe-Holmes Social Readjustment Rating Scale. A 6-month score of 300 or more, or a year-score total of 500 or more, indicates high stress in a client's life. However, susceptibility to stress-related physical or psychological illness cannot be accurately estimated without considering the individual's coping resources and available support systems. Positive coping mechanisms and strong social support can mitigate the risk of stress-related illnesses even in the face of significant life changes and losses. Choice A is incorrect because it makes a definitive statement about the client's state without considering individual coping mechanisms and support. Choice B is incorrect because a score of 110 does not necessarily mean no threat of stress-related illness, as individual factors play a crucial role. Choice D is incorrect as it assumes a positive outlook without acknowledging the potential impact of the experienced losses on stress levels.

5. In evaluating a client's response to stress, what would indicate a secondary appraisal of the stressful event?

• A. When the individual judges the event to be benign
• B. When the individual judges the event to be irrelevant
• C. When the individual judges the resources and skills needed to deal with the event
• D. When the individual judges the event to be pleasurable

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A secondary appraisal occurs when an individual evaluates the resources and skills required to cope with a stressful event. This type of appraisal focuses on the person's perceived ability to manage the situation. In contrast, choices A, B, and D do not involve the assessment of resources and skills. Choice A relates to a benign judgment of the event, choice B to an irrelevant judgment, and choice D to a pleasurable judgment, which are aspects of primary rather than secondary appraisals.

Similar Questions