ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Practice A
1. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which common side effect should the nurse educate the patient about?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Dry mouth
- D. Weight loss
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common side effect associated with tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs). TCAs block acetylcholine receptors, leading to anticholinergic effects such as dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, and urinary retention. It is important for the nurse to educate the patient about this side effect to promote awareness and provide appropriate management strategies, such as maintaining good oral hygiene and staying hydrated. Choice A, hypertension, is not a common side effect of TCAs. Choice B, diarrhea, is not a typical side effect of TCAs; in fact, TCAs are more likely to cause constipation. Choice D, weight loss, is less common with TCAs as they are more likely to cause weight gain.
2. How does emotional trauma typically affect individuals physically?
- A. Emotional trauma is a distinct category and unrelated to physical symptoms.
- B. Physical manifestations of emotional trauma are usually temporary.
- C. Emotional trauma is often manifested as physical symptoms.
- D. Patients are more aware of physical problems caused by trauma.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Emotional trauma can often manifest as physical symptoms, such as headaches, stomachaches, and other somatic complaints. These physical manifestations can be long-lasting and impact the individual's overall well-being.
3. A new psychiatric nurse states, 'This client's use of defense mechanisms should be eliminated.' Which is a correct evaluation of this nurse's statement?
- A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
- B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
- C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
- D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms help individuals reduce anxiety during times of stress. It is crucial for the nurse to understand that defense mechanisms serve a purpose and can be a normal part of coping. However, if defense mechanisms significantly hinder the client's ability to develop healthy coping skills, they should be addressed and explored. Eliminating defense mechanisms entirely without considering the individual's overall coping strategies can be counterproductive and may lead to increased distress for the client. Choice B is incorrect because not all defense mechanisms are maladaptive; some can be adaptive and helpful. Choice C is incorrect because labeling individuals as having weak ego integrity based on their use of defense mechanisms is stigmatizing and oversimplified. Choice D is incorrect because fostering and encouraging defense mechanisms without differentiation can lead to maladaptive behaviors and reliance on these mechanisms instead of healthier coping strategies.
4. A client has experienced the death of a close family member and at the same time becomes unemployed. This situation has resulted in a 6-month score of 110 on the Recent Life Changes Questionnaire. How should the nurse evaluate this client data?
- A. The client is experiencing severe distress and is at risk for physical and psychological illness.
- B. A score of 110 on the Miller and Rahe Recent Life Changes Questionnaire indicates no significant threat of stress-related illness.
- C. Susceptibility to stress-related physical or psychological illness cannot be estimated without knowledge of coping resources and available supports.
- D. The client may view these losses as challenges and perceive them as opportunities.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The Recent Life Changes Questionnaire is an expanded version of the Schedule of Recent Experiences and the Rahe-Holmes Social Readjustment Rating Scale. A 6-month score of 300 or more, or a year-score total of 500 or more, indicates high stress in a client's life. However, susceptibility to stress-related physical or psychological illness cannot be accurately estimated without considering the individual's coping resources and available support systems. Positive coping mechanisms and strong social support can mitigate the risk of stress-related illnesses even in the face of significant life changes and losses. Choice A is incorrect because it makes a definitive statement about the client's state without considering individual coping mechanisms and support. Choice B is incorrect because a score of 110 does not necessarily mean no threat of stress-related illness, as individual factors play a crucial role. Choice D is incorrect as it assumes a positive outlook without acknowledging the potential impact of the experienced losses on stress levels.
5. In pediatric mental health, there is a lack of sufficient numbers of community-based resources and providers, and there are long waiting lists for services. This has resulted in: Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Children of color and poor economic conditions being underserved
- B. Increased stress in the family unit
- C. Markedly increased funding
- D. Premature termination of services
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The lack of resources in pediatric mental health leads to underserved populations, increased stress in the family unit, and premature termination of services. However, markedly increased funding does not align with the negative consequences of resource shortages; instead, it would be a potential solution to address the lack of resources and providers in pediatric mental health.
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