Nursing Elites

1. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA). Which common side effect should the nurse educate the patient about?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Dry mouth. Dry mouth is a common side effect associated with tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs). TCAs block acetylcholine receptors, leading to anticholinergic effects such as dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision, and urinary retention. It is important for the nurse to educate the patient about this side effect to promote awareness and provide appropriate management strategies, such as maintaining good oral hygiene and staying hydrated. Choice A, hypertension, is not a common side effect of TCAs. Choice B, diarrhea, is not a typical side effect of TCAs; in fact, TCAs are more likely to cause constipation. Choice D, weight loss, is less common with TCAs as they are more likely to cause weight gain.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional expect?

• A. Auditory hallucinations
• B. Delusions of grandeur
• C. A flat affect
• D. Disorganized speech

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Delusions of grandeur. Clients with paranoid schizophrenia often experience delusions of grandeur or persecution, auditory hallucinations, and a flat affect. However, the most characteristic finding for paranoid schizophrenia is the presence of delusions, which are fixed false beliefs that are not based in reality. Delusions of grandeur, where individuals believe they are exceptionally powerful or important, are commonly seen in paranoid schizophrenia. Choice A, auditory hallucinations, are more commonly associated with other types of schizophrenia such as paranoid or disorganized schizophrenia. Choice C, a flat affect, is a symptom that can be seen across various types of schizophrenia. Choice D, disorganized speech, is more indicative of disorganized schizophrenia.

3. Research conducted by Miller and Rahe in 1997 demonstrated a correlation between the effects of life changes and illness, leading to the development of the Recent Life Changes Questionnaire (RLCQ). Which principle most limits the effectiveness of this tool?

• A. Specific illnesses are not identified.
• B. The numerical values associated with specific life events are randomly assigned.
• C. Stress is viewed as only a physiological response.
• D. Personal perception of the event is excluded.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The main limitation of the Recent Life Changes Questionnaire (RLCQ) is that it does not consider an individual's personal perception of a life event. As people may interpret events differently, their subjective perspective plays a crucial role in how they experience stress and its potential impact on their health. Ignoring personal perception limits the effectiveness of the tool as it fails to capture the variations in how people respond to life changes. Choices A, B, and C are not the main limitations of the RLCQ. Specific illnesses not being identified or numerical values being randomly assigned do not directly impact the personal perception of life events. Additionally, viewing stress as only a physiological response is not the primary limitation, as stress encompasses psychological and emotional components as well.

4. A client is being taught relaxation techniques to manage anxiety. Which of the following techniques should not be included in the teaching? Select all that apply.

• A. Deep breathing exercises
• B. Progressive muscle relaxation
• C. Mindfulness meditation
• D. Cognitive restructuring

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Deep breathing exercises, progressive muscle relaxation, and mindfulness meditation are commonly used relaxation techniques to manage anxiety. Cognitive restructuring is a cognitive-behavioral technique aimed at changing negative thought patterns and beliefs, not a relaxation technique. It focuses on altering cognitive distortions rather than inducing physical relaxation responses.

5. Which is a correct evaluation of the new psychiatric nurse's statement regarding a client's use of defense mechanisms?

• A. Defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and need not be eliminated.
• B. Defense mechanisms are a maladaptive attempt by the ego to manage anxiety and should always be eliminated.
• C. Defense mechanisms, used by individuals with weak ego integrity, should be discouraged but not eliminated.
• D. Defense mechanisms cause disintegration of the ego and should be fostered and encouraged.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct evaluation is that defense mechanisms can be self-protective responses to stress and do not necessarily need to be eliminated. These mechanisms serve the purpose of reducing anxiety during times of stress. While some defense mechanisms may be maladaptive, they can also help individuals cope with challenging situations. It is essential for the nurse to recognize that addressing defense mechanisms should be done sensitively, as they may be crucial for the client's emotional regulation. Encouraging the development of healthy coping skills while acknowledging the role of defense mechanisms in managing stress is a balanced approach in psychiatric care. Choice B is incorrect because completely eliminating defense mechanisms is not always feasible or beneficial. Choice C is incorrect as it oversimplifies the relationship between defense mechanisms and ego integrity. Choice D is incorrect as it misrepresents the role of defense mechanisms in ego functions.

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