ATI RN
ATI Mental Health
1. In assessing a client with major depressive disorder, which of the following findings shouldn't the nurse expect?
- A. Anhedonia
- B. Hypersomnia
- C. Fatigue
- D. Flight of ideas
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In major depressive disorder, common findings include anhedonia (loss of interest or pleasure), hypersomnia (excessive sleepiness), fatigue, and feelings of worthlessness. Flight of ideas, characterized by racing thoughts and rapid speech, is typically associated with bipolar disorder during manic episodes, not major depressive disorder.
2. Which behavior is consistent with therapeutic communication?
- A. Offering your opinion when asked to convey support.
- B. Summarizing the essence of the patient's comments in your own words.
- C. Interrupting periods of silence before they become awkward for the patient.
- D. Telling the patient they did well when you approve of their statements or actions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Summarizing the essence of the patient's comments in your own words is a key aspect of therapeutic communication as it demonstrates active listening and understanding. It shows the patient that their words have been heard and understood, fostering a sense of validation and empathy. Offering opinions, interrupting silence, or giving approval may not always align with the principles of therapeutic communication, which focus on patient-centered interactions and empathetic responses.
3. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing delusions. Which intervention should the nurse implement to address this symptom?
- A. Encourage the client to ignore the delusions.
- B. Provide reality-based feedback to the client.
- C. Distract the client from the delusions.
- D. Encourage the client to discuss the delusions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a client with schizophrenia is experiencing delusions, providing reality-based feedback is considered an effective intervention to address this symptom. This approach helps the client differentiate between what is real and what is not real, assisting them in managing their delusions and promoting their overall well-being. Choice A is incorrect because ignoring the delusions does not help the client in distinguishing reality from delusions. Choice C is incorrect as distraction may only provide temporary relief but does not address the underlying issue. Choice D is incorrect because encouraging the client to discuss the delusions may reinforce or intensify them rather than help in managing them effectively.
4. A client diagnosed with major depressive disorder is receiving cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT). Which outcome indicates that the therapy is effective?
- A. The client identifies and challenges negative thoughts.
- B. The client reports an increase in suicidal thoughts.
- C. The client experiences an increase in anxiety.
- D. The client shows no change in behavior.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), one of the primary objectives is to help clients identify and challenge their negative thoughts. This process allows the individual to reframe their thinking patterns and develop more adaptive coping strategies. Reporting an increase in suicidal thoughts (Choice B) or experiencing an increase in anxiety (Choice C) are not desired outcomes and may indicate a need for further intervention. Showing no change in behavior (Choice D) suggests that the therapy has not been effective. Therefore, the correct indicator of effective therapy in this context is the client's ability to identify and challenge negative thoughts (Choice A).
5. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?
- A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
- B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
- C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
- D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access