a nurse is assessing a client with major depressive disorder which of the following findings shouldnt the nurse expect
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Mental Health

1. In assessing a client with major depressive disorder, which of the following findings shouldn't the nurse expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In major depressive disorder, common findings include anhedonia (loss of interest or pleasure), hypersomnia (excessive sleepiness), fatigue, and feelings of worthlessness. Flight of ideas, characterized by racing thoughts and rapid speech, is typically associated with bipolar disorder during manic episodes, not major depressive disorder.

2. Which therapeutic approach is most effective for managing borderline personality disorder?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dialectical behavior therapy (DBT) is considered the most effective therapeutic approach for managing borderline personality disorder. DBT is a specialized form of cognitive-behavioral therapy that focuses on providing skills to cope with intense emotions, improve relationships, and regulate behavior. It has been extensively studied and shown to be effective in reducing self-harm, suicidal behaviors, and improving overall functioning in individuals with borderline personality disorder. Cognitive-behavioral therapy (Choice B) is a common and effective treatment for many mental health conditions but is not as specifically tailored to address the core symptoms of borderline personality disorder as DBT. Psychoanalysis (Choice C) is a more intensive and long-term therapy that focuses on exploring unconscious patterns and early life experiences, which may not be as practical or effective for the impulsive and emotional dysregulation seen in borderline personality disorder. Supportive therapy (Choice D) provides emotional support but lacks the structured skills training and strategies that are essential in managing borderline personality disorder.

3. Kyle, a patient with schizophrenia, began taking the first-generation antipsychotic haloperidol (Haldol) last week. One day you find him sitting very stiffly and not moving. He is diaphoretic, and when you ask if he is okay, he seems unable to respond verbally. His vital signs are: BP 170/100, P 110, T 104.2°F. What is the priority nursing intervention? Select one that does not apply.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The patient's symptoms, including stiffness, diaphoresis, inability to respond verbally, and vital sign abnormalities, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a serious and potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications. Administering a medication such as benztropine intramuscularly is the priority to address the dystonic reaction associated with NMS. This intervention can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications. Holding the medication and contacting the prescriber may be necessary but addressing the acute symptoms takes precedence. Wiping the patient with a cold washcloth or alcohol would not address the underlying medical emergency. Reassuring the patient about tardive dyskinesia is irrelevant and not the immediate concern in this scenario.

4. When assessing a client with bipolar disorder who is experiencing a depressive episode, which of the following findings should the nurse not expect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client experiencing a depressive episode in bipolar disorder, common findings include low energy, feelings of hopelessness, insomnia or hypersomnia, and decreased appetite. Difficulty concentrating is more indicative of attention deficit disorders or cognitive impairment rather than a typical presentation of a depressive episode in bipolar disorder.

5. Which response by a 15-year-old demonstrates a common symptom observed in patients diagnosed with major depressive disorder?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sleep disturbances, such as early morning awakening, are common symptoms of major depressive disorder.

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