a nurse is providing teaching to a client who is taking sucralfate which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A client is taking sucralfate. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Sucralfate is most effective when taken 1 hour before meals to protect the stomach lining. Option B is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken after meals. Option C is incorrect because sucralfate is typically taken on a regular schedule, not just when symptoms occur. Option D is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken with milk, as it can interfere with its effectiveness.

2. A nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In schizophrenia, clients often display an inability to identify common objects due to cognitive impairment. This is known as associative agnosia, where individuals struggle to recognize familiar objects, faces, or sounds. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with schizophrenia. Decreased level of consciousness is more indicative of conditions like head trauma or drug overdose. Poor problem-solving ability may be seen in various mental health disorders but is not specific to schizophrenia. Preoccupation with somatic disturbances is more commonly seen in somatic symptom disorders or somatic delusions, not a typical finding in schizophrenia.

3. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who reports ingesting thirty diazepam tablets. After securing the client's airway and initiating an IV, which of the following actions should the nurse do next?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering flumazenil is the priority to reverse the effects of diazepam overdose. Flumazenil is a specific benzodiazepine receptor antagonist that can rapidly reverse the sedative effects of diazepam. Monitoring the IV site for thrombophlebitis is important but not the immediate priority in this situation. Evaluating the client for further suicidal behavior is important for comprehensive care but is not the most urgent action at this moment. Initiating seizure precautions may be necessary, but the priority is to counteract the sedative effects of diazepam with flumazenil.

4. What is the priority intervention for a patient with dehydration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer IV fluids. This intervention is the priority as it helps rapidly restore hydration in patients with dehydration by delivering fluids directly into the bloodstream. Monitoring intake and output (choice B) is important but comes after providing immediate fluid resuscitation. Administering oral fluids (choice C) may not be sufficient for a patient with dehydration who requires rapid rehydration. Providing electrolyte replacement (choice D) is essential but often follows fluid resuscitation to correct any electrolyte imbalances resulting from dehydration.

5. A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease are at risk for aspiration due to the potential of regurgitation, which can lead to aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Choice B (receiving a high-osmolarity formula) can lead to issues like diarrhea or dehydration but is not directly related to aspiration. Choice C (sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding) is actually a preventive measure to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D (a residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding) is a concern for delayed gastric emptying but not a direct risk factor for aspiration.

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