Nursing Elites

1. A client is taking sucralfate. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I should take this medication 1 hour before meals.
• B. I should take this medication 30 minutes after meals.
• C. I should take this medication only when I have symptoms of heartburn.
• D. I should take this medication with a glass of milk.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Sucralfate is most effective when taken 1 hour before meals to protect the stomach lining. Option B is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken after meals. Option C is incorrect because sucralfate is typically taken on a regular schedule, not just when symptoms occur. Option D is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken with milk, as it can interfere with its effectiveness.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has Guillain-Barré syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Increased urine output.
• B. Hyperactive reflexes.
• C. Hypoactive bowel sounds.
• D. Facial weakness.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Facial weakness is a common finding in clients with Guillain-Barré syndrome due to muscle weakness. While increased urine output is not typically associated with Guillain-Barré syndrome, hyperactive reflexes are more indicative of conditions like hyperthyroidism or spinal cord injury. Hypoactive bowel sounds are not a classic finding in Guillain-Barré syndrome, making it an incorrect choice.

3. Which electrolyte imbalance should be closely monitored in patients on furosemide?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Hyponatremia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypercalcemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium loss in the body, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial in patients on furosemide to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness. Choice B, hyponatremia, is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypercalcemia (choice D) are not commonly linked to furosemide therapy; therefore, they are incorrect choices.

4. A charge nurse is teaching new staff members about factors that increase a client's risk of becoming violent. Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include as the best predictor of future violence?

• A. Experiencing delusions.
• B. Male gender.
• C. Previous violent behavior.
• D. A history of being in prison.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Previous violent behavior. This is the best predictor of future violence as individuals who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts in the future. While experiencing delusions and being male may contribute to an increased risk of violence in certain situations, they are not as strong predictors as a history of violence. Similarly, having a history of being in prison may indicate a higher likelihood of violence, but it is not as directly linked to future violent behavior as previous violent actions.

5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who has hypokalemia. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Serum potassium 5.4 mEq/L
• B. Flat T waves
• C. Elevated ST segments
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Flat T waves are a characteristic ECG finding in hypokalemia. Hypokalemia causes a decrease in serum potassium levels, leading to altered cardiac conduction. Flat T waves are associated with hypokalemia-induced cardiac dysrhythmias. Elevated ST segments are typically seen in conditions like myocardial infarction, not in hypokalemia. Bradycardia is not a typical manifestation of hypokalemia; instead, tachycardia may occur due to potassium imbalances affecting the heart's electrical activity.

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