ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A client is taking sucralfate. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I should take this medication 1 hour before meals.
- B. I should take this medication 30 minutes after meals.
- C. I should take this medication only when I have symptoms of heartburn.
- D. I should take this medication with a glass of milk.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Sucralfate is most effective when taken 1 hour before meals to protect the stomach lining. Option B is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken after meals. Option C is incorrect because sucralfate is typically taken on a regular schedule, not just when symptoms occur. Option D is incorrect because sucralfate should not be taken with milk, as it can interfere with its effectiveness.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?
- A. Calcium level of 9.0 mg/dL
- B. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L
- C. Respiratory rate of 18/min
- D. Stridor
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched sound that indicates airway obstruction and is the priority finding to report following a thyroidectomy. In this situation, airway compromise is a critical concern that requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation. While calcium level (Choice A) and serum sodium level (Choice B) are important assessments post-thyroidectomy, they do not represent an immediate threat to the client's airway. A respiratory rate of 18/min (Choice C) falls within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate risk to the client's airway compared to the presence of stridor.
3. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?
- A. This medication will increase your potassium levels.
- B. You should take this medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset.
- C. This medication will decrease your blood glucose levels.
- D. You should increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement the nurse should include in the teaching for a client with a new prescription for furosemide is that the client should take the medication with food to prevent gastrointestinal upset. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause gastrointestinal upset, so taking it with food can help reduce this side effect and improve medication tolerance. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not increase potassium levels, decrease blood glucose levels, or require an increase in the intake of potassium-rich foods. Therefore, the most important teaching point for the client is to take furosemide with food.
4. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Encourage the client to breathe deeply and cough every 4 hours.
- B. Provide a diet that is high in carbohydrates and low in protein.
- C. Teach the client pursed-lip breathing technique.
- D. Restrict the client's fluid intake to 1,500 mL per day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Teach the client pursed-lip breathing technique. Pursed-lip breathing helps clients with COPD improve oxygenation and reduce shortness of breath. Choice A is incorrect because deep breathing and coughing are not recommended every 4 hours for clients with COPD. Choice B is incorrect because a diet high in carbohydrates and low in protein is not specifically indicated for COPD. Choice D is incorrect because fluid restriction is not a standard intervention for COPD unless the client has comorbid conditions that necessitate it.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 36 weeks gestation and has preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Proteinuria of 1+.
- B. Blood pressure 120/80 mm Hg.
- C. Respiratory rate of 18/min.
- D. Nonpitting ankle edema.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nonpitting ankle edema is a concerning sign of worsening preeclampsia due to fluid retention and should be reported immediately. Proteinuria of 1+ is a common finding in preeclampsia. A blood pressure of 120/80 mm Hg is within normal limits. A respiratory rate of 18/min is also within normal range. Therefore, choices A, B, and C are not as urgent as nonpitting ankle edema in this scenario.
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