ATI RN
ATI Nutrition 2024 NGN Exam
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a small-bore jejunostomy and is receiving a continuous tube feeding with a high-viscosity formula. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent the tubing from clogging?
- A. Replace the bag and tubing every 24 hr
- B. Flush the tubing with 10 mL water every 6 hr
- C. Admin the feeding by gravity drip
- D. Heat the formula prior to infusion
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Flushing the tubing with 10 mL of water every 6 hours helps prevent clogging when using high-viscosity formulas.
2. The parents of a child with acute postinfectious glomerulonephritis (APIGN) ask how they will know that the condition is improving. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Your child’s urine output will increase, and the urine will become less brown in color.
- B. Your child will rest more comfortably.
- C. Your child’s appetite will decrease.
- D. Your child’s laboratory test values will show increased BUN.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Improvement in APIGN is indicated by an increase in urine output and a change in urine color from brown (due to hematuria) to a more normal appearance. This reflects a reduction in glomerular inflammation and improved kidney function. Choice B is incorrect because resting more comfortably is not a direct indicator of kidney function improvement. Choice C is incorrect because a decrease in appetite is not typically associated with improvement in APIGN. Choice D is incorrect because an increased BUN value would suggest worsening kidney function rather than improvement.
3. After routine patient contact, how long should hand washing last at least?
- A. 30 seconds
- B. 1 minute
- C. 2 minutes
- D. 3 minutes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Proper hand washing for 30 seconds is recommended after routine patient contact as it effectively removes pathogens. This duration ensures thorough cleaning without excessive time consumption, promoting infection control and prevention.
4. A 69-year-old female patient has been diagnosed with malignant melanoma. The care team has collaborated with the patient and her family and agreed on a plan of care that includes administration of interferon alfa-2b. After administering interferon alfa-2b, the oncology nurse should anticipate that the patient may develop which of the following adverse effects?
- A. Profound diaphoresis
- B. Decreased level of consciousness
- C. Flu-like symptoms
- D. Cyanosis and pallor
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After the administration of interferon alfa-2b, the patient may develop flu-like symptoms as an adverse effect. Flu-like symptoms are commonly associated with interferon therapy, including fever, chills, fatigue, and muscle aches. These symptoms usually subside over time. Options A, B, and D are not typically associated with interferon alfa-2b administration. Profound diaphoresis is excessive sweating, decreased level of consciousness indicates neurological issues, and cyanosis and pallor suggest circulatory or respiratory problems, none of which are expected adverse effects of interferon alfa-2b.
5. For which patient diagnosis would a prescription for nifedipine be least appropriate?
- A. Angina Pectoris
- B. Essential HTN
- C. Atrial Fibrillation
- D. Vasospastic Angina
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Nifedipine primarily acts as a calcium channel blocker, exerting its effects on vascular smooth muscle. It is not effective for treating dysrhythmias like Atrial Fibrillation, which involve abnormalities in the heart's electrical system. Nifedipine is commonly prescribed for conditions such as angina pectoris, essential hypertension, and vasospastic angina due to its vasodilatory and anti-anginal properties. Choices A, B, and D are more appropriate as nifedipine can help in managing angina pectoris, hypertension, and vasospastic angina by reducing myocardial oxygen demand and dilating coronary arteries.
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