ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2024
1. A nurse overhears two assistive personnel (AP) discussing a client in an elevator. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Contact the client's family about the incident.
- B. Notify the client's provider about the incident.
- C. File a complaint with the facility's ethics committee.
- D. Report the incident to the AP's charge nurse.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to report the incident to the AP's charge nurse. This is important because discussing a client's information violates confidentiality policies. Contacting the client's family (Choice A) is not appropriate as it may breach confidentiality further. Notifying the client's provider (Choice B) is not the initial action to take in this situation, as addressing it within the facility should come first. Filing a complaint with the facility's ethics committee (Choice C) is not the immediate step and might not directly address the issue at hand.
2. A client who is postpartum requests information about contraception. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. The lactation amenorrhea method is effective for the first year postpartum.
- B. You should not use the diaphragm used before your pregnancy.
- C. Apply the transdermal birth control patch on your upper arm.
- D. Avoid using vaginal spermicides while breastfeeding.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to avoid using vaginal spermicides while breastfeeding. This instruction is important as spermicides can potentially affect the milk supply and cause irritation. Choice A is incorrect because the effectiveness of the lactation amenorrhea method diminishes after the first six months postpartum. Choice B is incorrect as using the diaphragm used before pregnancy may not fit properly due to changes in the body postpartum. Choice C is incorrect as the transdermal birth control patch is typically applied to the abdomen, buttocks, or upper torso, not specifically the upper arm.
3. During an emergency response following a disaster, which client should be recommended for early discharge?
- A. A client with COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min.
- B. A client with cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy.
- C. A client receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis.
- D. A client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client who is 1 day postoperative following a vertebroplasty is stable and can be discharged early. In an emergency response situation, it is crucial to prioritize clients who are medically stable and do not require immediate hospital care. The client with COPD and a respiratory rate of 44/min needs close monitoring and intervention. The client with cancer and a sealed implant for radiation therapy requires specialized care and follow-up. The client receiving heparin for deep-vein thrombosis needs ongoing anticoagulant therapy and monitoring, making early discharge not appropriate.
4. A charge nurse is teaching new staff members about factors that increase a client's risk of becoming violent. Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include as the best predictor of future violence?
- A. Experiencing delusions.
- B. Male gender.
- C. Previous violent behavior.
- D. A history of being in prison.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Previous violent behavior. This is the best predictor of future violence as individuals who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts in the future. While experiencing delusions and being male may contribute to an increased risk of violence in certain situations, they are not as strong predictors as a history of violence. Similarly, having a history of being in prison may indicate a higher likelihood of violence, but it is not as directly linked to future violent behavior as previous violent actions.
5. A nurse is preparing to teach a client about the use of a peak flow meter. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Place the mouthpiece in your mouth and blow out as quickly as you can.
- B. Exhale slowly into the mouthpiece over 5 seconds.
- C. Take a slow deep breath before blowing into the mouthpiece.
- D. Blow into the mouthpiece at a steady rate for 3 seconds.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct instruction for using a peak flow meter is to place the mouthpiece in your mouth and blow out as quickly as you can. This action helps measure the peak expiratory flow of the client. Choice B is incorrect because exhaling slowly does not provide an accurate peak flow reading. Choice C is incorrect as taking a slow deep breath before blowing interferes with obtaining an accurate measurement. Choice D is incorrect as blowing at a steady rate for 3 seconds may not reflect the peak expiratory flow accurately.
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