ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Chicken breast
- B. Pasta
- C. Spinach
- D. Yogurt
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Correct Answer: Chicken breast. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Foods high in potassium, like spinach and yogurt, should be avoided when taking spironolactone to prevent hyperkalemia. Chicken breast, being a low-potassium protein source, is a suitable recommendation for clients on spironolactone therapy.
2. A client who has a new prescription for levothyroxine is receiving teaching from a nurse. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will need to take this medication for 3 months.
- B. I will take this medication with an antacid.
- C. I will avoid foods that contain iodine.
- D. I will take this medication in the morning before breakfast.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: "I will take this medication in the morning before breakfast." Levothyroxine should be taken in the morning before breakfast to improve absorption and effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because the duration of levothyroxine therapy is usually long-term and not limited to 3 months. Choice B is incorrect because levothyroxine should not be taken with antacids as they may decrease its absorption. Choice C is incorrect because there is no need to avoid foods that contain iodine while taking levothyroxine.
3. A client with deep vein thrombosis receiving heparin therapy needs monitoring. Which test should the nurse use to regulate the medication dosage?
- A. Prothrombin time (PT)
- B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
- C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- D. Fibrinogen levels
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). aPTT is specifically used to monitor and regulate heparin therapy as it assesses the intrinsic pathway of coagulation, which heparin affects. Options A and B, Prothrombin time (PT) and International Normalized Ratio (INR), are used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin. Option D, Fibrinogen levels, is not the primary test used to monitor heparin therapy.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intermittent enteral feeding to a client who has an NG tube. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take first?
- A. Check the residual volume.
- B. Flush the tube with 0.9% sodium chloride.
- C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees.
- D. Warm the formula to body temperature.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 45 degrees is the priority action before administering an enteral feeding through an NG tube. This position helps prevent aspiration by promoting proper flow and digestion of the feeding. Checking the residual volume, flushing the tube, and warming the formula are important steps but come after ensuring the client is in the correct position to minimize the risk of complications.
5. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient experiencing an acute asthma attack?
- A. Administer bronchodilators
- B. Administer corticosteroids
- C. Provide supplemental oxygen
- D. Start IV fluids
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to administer bronchodilators as the priority nursing intervention for a patient with an acute asthma attack. Bronchodilators help open the airways and improve airflow, which is crucial in managing acute asthma symptoms. Administering corticosteroids (Choice B) is also important in the treatment plan, but it is not the priority intervention during an acute attack. Providing supplemental oxygen (Choice C) may be necessary but is not the priority initial intervention. Starting IV fluids (Choice D) is not typically indicated as a priority intervention for an acute asthma attack.
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