a nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone which of the following foods should the nurse recommend
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct Answer: Chicken breast. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, meaning it helps the body retain potassium. Foods high in potassium, like spinach and yogurt, should be avoided when taking spironolactone to prevent hyperkalemia. Chicken breast, being a low-potassium protein source, is a suitable recommendation for clients on spironolactone therapy.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who has a pressure ulcer. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Undermining.' Undermining occurs when the tissue under the wound edges erodes, indicating poor healing progress. This finding should be reported to the provider as it suggests delayed wound healing and may require intervention. Choice A, 'Eschar,' is a thick, hard, black/brown necrotic tissue that forms over a wound. While it indicates a non-healing wound, it is not as concerning as undermining. Choice B, 'Slough,' is a soft, moist, yellow/white tissue that is also a sign of necrosis. While the presence of slough indicates the need for wound cleaning and debridement, it is not as critical to report as undermining. Choice C, 'Granulation tissue,' is new tissue that forms during wound healing and is a positive sign. The presence of granulation tissue indicates that the wound is progressing through the healing stages and is not a finding that requires immediate reporting to the provider.

3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypotension is a common adverse effect of morphine due to its vasodilatory properties. It can lead to a drop in blood pressure, which should be closely monitored during administration. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a typical adverse effect of morphine. Urinary retention (Choice B) is a side effect of morphine due to its impact on the bladder muscles, but it is not classified as an adverse effect. Bradycardia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of morphine; instead, it tends to cause tachycardia.

4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has diabetes insipidus. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Polyuria is the correct answer. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by the inability to concentrate urine, leading to excessive urination (polyuria) and thirst. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not typically associated with diabetes insipidus. While dehydration from the excessive urination can lead to hypotension rather than hypertension, and weight loss can occur due to fluid loss, the most specific and significant finding expected in diabetes insipidus is polyuria.

5. Which lab value should be monitored in a patient on digoxin?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor digoxin levels in a patient on digoxin. Digoxin is a medication commonly used to treat heart conditions, and monitoring its levels in the blood is crucial to ensure that the patient is within the therapeutic range and to prevent toxicity. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice A) is important due to the potential of digoxin-induced hypokalemia, but the primary focus should be on monitoring digoxin levels. Monitoring calcium levels (Choice B) and sodium levels (Choice D) are not directly related to digoxin therapy and are not the primary lab values of concern when administering digoxin.

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