Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client with schizophrenia. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

• A. Blood pressure: 102/56 mm Hg.
• B. Heart rate: 95/min.
• C. Sore throat.
• D. WBC count 14,000/mm^3.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated WBC count should be reported to the provider as it may indicate an infection. Elevated white blood cell counts can be a sign of an underlying infection or inflammation. Monitoring and reporting abnormal laboratory values are essential for timely interventions. The other options, such as blood pressure, heart rate, and a sore throat, while important for overall assessment, are not directly related to the potential medical urgency indicated by an elevated WBC count.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a hip arthroplasty. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?

• A. Heart rate of 90/min
• B. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
• C. Warmth and redness in the calf
• D. Pink-tinged urine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, warmth and redness in the calf. These symptoms may indicate a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a serious complication following hip arthroplasty that requires immediate attention. A heart rate of 90/min and blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg are within normal ranges for a postoperative client and do not indicate an urgent issue. Pink-tinged urine may suggest blood in the urine, which should be monitored but is not as critical as the potential DVT.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Serum sodium.
• B. Serum glucose.
• C. Serum potassium.
• D. Serum calcium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Serum potassium. Furosemide is a potassium-wasting diuretic, meaning it can lead to potassium loss in the body. Monitoring serum potassium levels is crucial to evaluate the effectiveness of furosemide and prevent hypokalemia. Options A, B, and D are incorrect because furosemide does not directly affect sodium, glucose, or calcium levels in the same way it impacts potassium levels.

4. A healthcare provider is reviewing laboratory results for a client who is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following results indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Platelets 250,000/mm³
• B. aPTT 60 seconds
• C. Hemoglobin 15 g/dL
• D. INR 1.5

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An aPTT of 60 seconds indicates that the client is receiving an effective dose of heparin. The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) measures the time it takes for blood to clot and is used to monitor heparin therapy. A therapeutic range for aPTT during heparin therapy is usually 1.5 to 2 times the control value, which is around 25-35 seconds. Platelets, hemoglobin, and INR values are not direct indicators of the effectiveness of heparin therapy.

5. A healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of hypertension. Which of the following foods should the provider recommend?

• A. Bananas
• B. Whole grains
• C. Lean beef
• D. Canned soup

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is lean beef because it is a good source of protein and essential nutrients. When providing dietary recommendations to clients with hypertension, it is important to focus on lean protein sources to promote a balanced diet. Bananas, although a healthy fruit, may not be the best choice due to their high potassium content, which can sometimes be a concern for individuals with hypertension. Whole grains are generally a good choice, but lean protein like beef is more suitable in this scenario. Canned soup often contains high levels of sodium, which is not recommended for individuals with hypertension.

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