ATI RN
ATI Exit Exam 2023 Quizlet
1. A client with iron-deficiency anemia is being taught about dietary management by a nurse. Which of the following foods should the nurse recommend?
- A. Oatmeal
- B. Red meat
- C. Bananas
- D. Whole grains
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Red meat. Red meat is a good dietary source of heme iron, which is easily absorbed by the body and beneficial for individuals with iron-deficiency anemia. Oatmeal, bananas, and whole grains are not as rich in iron compared to red meat and may not provide sufficient amounts to help manage iron-deficiency anemia effectively.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes insipidus. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Weight gain
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Hyperactive bowel sounds
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Increased urine output is a key finding in clients with diabetes insipidus due to a deficiency of antidiuretic hormone. Weight gain (choice A) is not expected in diabetes insipidus as it is a condition characterized by excessive thirst and urination leading to fluid loss. Bradycardia (choice C) and hyperactive bowel sounds (choice D) are not typically associated with diabetes insipidus.
3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a new prescription for a peripheral intravenous (IV) catheter. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent infection?
- A. Shave the hair at the insertion site.
- B. Cleanse the site with povidone-iodine.
- C. Wear sterile gloves when changing the dressing.
- D. Change the IV site every 48 to 72 hours.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action to prevent infection when caring for a client with a new peripheral IV catheter is to change the IV site every 48 to 72 hours. Shaving the hair at the insertion site can actually increase the risk of infection by causing microabrasions in the skin. While cleansing the site with povidone-iodine is important before insertion, it is not necessary to continue doing so once the IV is in place. Wearing sterile gloves when changing the dressing is crucial for maintaining aseptic technique but does not directly prevent infection related to the IV site itself.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Hypotension
- C. Dry mucous membranes
- D. Tachypnea
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Correct! Dry mucous membranes are a common finding in clients with dehydration. Dehydration leads to reduced fluid volume in the body, resulting in dryness of mucous membranes, decreased skin turgor, and thirst. Bradycardia (slow heart rate) is not typically associated with dehydration, as the body tries to compensate for decreased fluid volume by increasing heart rate. Hypotension (low blood pressure) is a possible finding in dehydration due to reduced circulating volume. Tachypnea (rapid breathing) is more commonly seen in conditions like respiratory distress or metabolic acidosis, rather than dehydration.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following findings indicates the effectiveness of the treatment?
- A. A chest x-ray reveals increased density in all lung fields.
- B. The client reports feeling less anxious.
- C. Diminished breath sounds are auscultated bilaterally.
- D. ABG results include pH 7.48, PaO2 77 mm Hg, and PaCO2 47 mm Hg.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. In a client with a pulmonary embolism, improvement in anxiety levels can indicate the effectiveness of treatment as it suggests better oxygenation and perfusion. Choices A, C, and D do not directly reflect the effectiveness of treatment for a pulmonary embolism. Increased density in all lung fields on a chest x-ray may indicate worsening of the condition, diminished breath sounds suggest impaired lung function, and ABG results with a pH of 7.48, PaO2 of 77 mm Hg, and PaCO2 of 47 mm Hg do not specifically indicate treatment effectiveness for a pulmonary embolism.
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