Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Sucralfate to treat a duodenal ulcer. Which of the following instructions should be included?

• A. Take the medication with meals.
• B. Swallow the tablet whole.
• C. Take the medication 1 hour before meals.
• D. Chew the tablet before swallowing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction for taking Sucralfate is to take it 1 hour before meals. This timing allows the medication to coat the stomach lining, providing a protective barrier against stomach acid, which aids in healing the duodenal ulcer. Option A is incorrect as it contradicts the correct timing for taking Sucralfate. Option B is not necessary as it does not pertain to how the medication should be taken in relation to meals. Option D is incorrect as chewing the tablet before swallowing is not the correct administration method for Sucralfate.

2. What is the pharmacological action of metformin?

• A. Blocks stimulation of beta1 and beta2.
• B. Blocks vasoconstriction and aldosterone.
• C. Acts at many levels in the CNS to produce an anxiolytic effect.
• D. Decreases hepatic glucose production.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Decreases hepatic glucose production. Metformin's primary pharmacological action is to decrease hepatic glucose production, leading to lower blood sugar levels and improved insulin sensitivity in the liver. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because metformin does not block stimulation of beta1 and beta2 receptors, vasoconstriction, aldosterone, or act in the CNS to produce an anxiolytic effect. Therefore, these options are not reflective of metformin's mechanism of action.

3. A client has a new prescription for Somatropin to stimulate growth. The client should monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Hyperglycemia.
• B. Bradycardia.
• C. Urinary frequency.
• D. Edema.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Somatropin is known to cause hyperglycemia as a common adverse effect. Therefore, the client should be instructed to monitor for elevated blood glucose levels closely while taking this medication to ensure early detection and management of hyperglycemia.

4. A client asks the nurse how Rituximab works, which the client is receiving to treat Non-Hodgkin's Leukemia. Which of the following should the nurse include?

• A. Blocks hormone receptors
• B. Increases immune response
• C. Binds with specific antigens on tumor cells
• D. Stops DNA replication during cell division

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Rituximab is a monoclonal antibody that binds with specific antigens on B-lymphocytes, leading to the destruction of cancer cells. In the context of Non-Hodgkin's Leukemia, Rituximab targets and destroys cancerous B-lymphocytes, which helps in treating the disease. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Rituximab does not block hormone receptors, increase immune response, or stop DNA replication during cell division. The primary mode of action of Rituximab is its binding with specific antigens on tumor cells, specifically B-lymphocytes, to elicit an immune response against cancerous cells.

5. A client who received Prochlorperazine 4 hours ago reports spasms of his face. The nurse should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Fomepizole
• B. Naloxone
• C. Phytonadione
• D. Diphenhydramine

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's symptoms of face spasms after receiving Prochlorperazine indicate acute dystonia, a known side effect. Diphenhydramine is commonly administered to manage extrapyramidal symptoms, such as muscle spasms, caused by medications like Prochlorperazine. Therefore, the nurse should anticipate a prescription for Diphenhydramine to alleviate the client's symptoms. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Fomepizole is used in methanol or ethylene glycol poisoning, Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used in opioid overdose, and Phytonadione is vitamin K, used to reverse the effects of certain blood thinners.

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