a nurse in an acute mental health facility is caring for a client who is experiencing withdrawal from opioid use and has a new prescription for clonid
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. In an acute mental health facility, a patient experiencing opioid withdrawal has a new prescription for Clonidine. What action should the nurse identify as the priority?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to obtain baseline vital signs. This is essential for establishing a baseline assessment, especially for a patient undergoing opioid withdrawal and starting a new medication like Clonidine. Monitoring vital signs is crucial for evaluating the patient's response to treatment and detecting any potential complications early on. Administering the medication, providing ice chips, and educating the patient on Clonidine's effects are important tasks but obtaining baseline vital signs takes precedence to ensure the patient's safety and proper management.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer IV Vancomycin to a client who has a systemic infection. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the healthcare professional is to monitor the client for Red Man Syndrome. Red Man Syndrome is a common adverse reaction to Vancomycin characterized by flushing, rash, and hypotension. It is important to monitor the client for these symptoms to intervene promptly if they occur.

3. A client with Depression has a new prescription for Venlafaxine. For which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor this client? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'B and C.' Venlafaxine, a medication used to treat depression, can lead to adverse effects like dizziness and decreased libido. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for these potential side effects. Cough and alopecia are not typically associated with Venlafaxine. Therefore, choices A (Cough) and C (Decreased libido) are incorrect. Dizziness and decreased libido are the adverse effects that the nurse should focus on when monitoring a client on Venlafaxine treatment.

4. A client has anemia and a new prescription for ferrous sulfate liquid. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Taking ferrous sulfate with orange juice can help increase the absorption of iron. Orange juice contains vitamin C, which aids in the absorption of iron from the medication. This combination can enhance the effectiveness of the iron supplement for a client with anemia. Option A is incorrect because taking iron on an empty stomach can cause gastrointestinal upset. Option C is incorrect because calcium in milk can inhibit iron absorption. Option D is irrelevant to enhancing iron absorption.

5. Which drug undergoes extensive first-pass hepatic metabolism?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Propranolol undergoes extensive first-pass hepatic metabolism in the liver. When administered orally, propranolol is extensively metabolized by the liver before reaching systemic circulation, leading to reduced bioavailability. This process is known as first-pass hepatic metabolism, which significantly affects the drug's effectiveness and necessitates higher oral doses compared to other routes of administration. Heparin (Choice A) is not metabolized by the liver but excreted unchanged by the kidneys. Insulin (Choice B) is a peptide hormone that is not subject to significant first-pass metabolism. Nitroglycerin (Choice D) is primarily metabolized in the blood and tissues, bypassing significant first-pass metabolism in the liver.

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