a nurse in an acute mental health facility is caring for a client who is experiencing withdrawal from opioid use and has a new prescription for clonid
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. In an acute mental health facility, a patient experiencing opioid withdrawal has a new prescription for Clonidine. What action should the nurse identify as the priority?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to obtain baseline vital signs. This is essential for establishing a baseline assessment, especially for a patient undergoing opioid withdrawal and starting a new medication like Clonidine. Monitoring vital signs is crucial for evaluating the patient's response to treatment and detecting any potential complications early on. Administering the medication, providing ice chips, and educating the patient on Clonidine's effects are important tasks but obtaining baseline vital signs takes precedence to ensure the patient's safety and proper management.

2. A client has a prescription for Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole is to increase fluid intake. This helps prevent crystalluria and kidney stones, which are potential adverse effects of this medication. Adequate hydration is essential to reduce the risk of these complications.

3. A healthcare professional is monitoring a client who is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is a potentially dangerous condition. Spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic, can cause potassium retention, leading to hyperkalemia. This electrolyte imbalance can result in serious consequences such as cardiac dysrhythmias. The healthcare professional should promptly report this finding to the provider, withhold the medication, and take appropriate actions to prevent complications. Monitoring and managing potassium levels are crucial in clients receiving spironolactone. The other options do not directly relate to the potential adverse effects of spironolactone and are within normal limits, making them less urgent to report.

4. An older adult client has a new prescription for Digoxin and takes multiple other medications. The nurse should recognize that concurrent use of which of the following medications places the client at risk for Digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium-channel blocker, can increase digoxin levels, leading to toxicity. When given together, the digoxin dosage may need adjustment, and the nurse should closely monitor the client's digoxin levels to prevent toxicity symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, visual disturbances, and arrhythmias. The other choices, Phenytoin, Warfarin, and Aluminum hydroxide, do not significantly interact with Digoxin to cause toxicity. Phenytoin may reduce Digoxin levels, while Warfarin and Aluminum hydroxide have minimal interactions with Digoxin.

5. A nurse manager is reviewing the facility's policies for IV therapy with the members of his team. The nurse manager should remind the team that which of the following techniques helps minimize the risk of catheter embolism?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To minimize the risk of catheter embolism, it is crucial to avoid reinserting the needle into an IV catheter. This practice can potentially sever the end of the catheter, leading to catheter embolism. Proper insertion techniques, securement, and avoiding unnecessary manipulations of the catheter can help prevent this serious complication.

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