a nurse in an acute mental health facility is caring for a client who is experiencing withdrawal from opioid use and has a new prescription for clonid
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2019

1. In an acute mental health facility, a patient experiencing opioid withdrawal has a new prescription for Clonidine. What action should the nurse identify as the priority?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to obtain baseline vital signs. This is essential for establishing a baseline assessment, especially for a patient undergoing opioid withdrawal and starting a new medication like Clonidine. Monitoring vital signs is crucial for evaluating the patient's response to treatment and detecting any potential complications early on. Administering the medication, providing ice chips, and educating the patient on Clonidine's effects are important tasks but obtaining baseline vital signs takes precedence to ensure the patient's safety and proper management.

2. A client receiving chemotherapy with Methotrexate asks why Leucovorin is being given. Which of the following responses should the nurse use?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Leucovorin, a folic acid derivative and an antagonist to Methotrexate, is given within 12 hours of high doses of Methotrexate to protect healthy cells from the toxic effects of Methotrexate. It helps to reduce the bone marrow suppression and gastrointestinal side effects caused by Methotrexate, supporting the client's overall well-being during chemotherapy treatment. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because Leucovorin does not reduce the risk of a transfusion reaction from Methotrexate, increase platelet production, prevent bleeding, or potentiate the cytotoxic effects of Methotrexate. Instead, Leucovorin works by rescuing healthy cells from the toxic effects of Methotrexate.

3. A healthcare professional is preparing a client's medications. Which of the following actions should the professional take to follow legal practice guidelines? (Select all that apply.)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Maintaining skill competency is a critical aspect of legal practice guidelines for healthcare professionals. It is essential to ensure that healthcare professionals are competent and up-to-date with their skills to provide safe and effective care to patients. While determining the dosage, monitoring for adverse effects, and safeguarding medications are important aspects of medication administration, maintaining skill competency is a fundamental legal responsibility that ensures the delivery of quality care. Determining the dosage and monitoring for adverse effects are clinical responsibilities, while safeguarding medications pertains to proper storage and handling, not specifically related to legal practice guidelines.

4. A client with a history of preterm labor is reviewing a new prescription for Terbutaline. Which of the following client statements indicates understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The client should report increasing intensity, frequency, or duration of contractions to the provider because these are manifestations of preterm labor. This response demonstrates the client's understanding of the importance of monitoring contractions and seeking appropriate medical attention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because increasing fluid intake, increasing activity, or assuming the medication will prevent preterm labor are not relevant actions in managing preterm labor or taking Terbutaline.

5. Which of the following conditions is not treated with epinephrine?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Epinephrine is not used to treat renal disease. Epinephrine is commonly used to treat conditions like asthma, hypotension, and glaucoma, but it is not an appropriate treatment for renal disease. Renal disease requires specific management strategies that do not involve the use of epinephrine.

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