ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2024
1. A client has a new prescription for Labetalol. Which of the following instructions should be provided?
- A. Take the medication with food.
- B. Monitor your blood glucose levels.
- C. Expect a rapid heart rate.
- D. Increase your intake of high-sodium foods.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Take the medication with food. Labetalol should be taken with food to increase absorption and reduce the risk of orthostatic hypotension. Taking it with food helps in better absorption and minimizes the potential drop in blood pressure when standing up, which can occur with this medication. Choice B is incorrect as Labetalol is not primarily associated with affecting blood glucose levels. Choice C is incorrect as Labetalol is a beta-blocker that would actually lower heart rate, not increase it. Choice D is incorrect because increasing intake of high-sodium foods could counteract the antihypertensive effects of Labetalol.
2. Which of the following is considered a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?
- A. Mexiletine
- B. Amiodarone
- C. Quinidine
- D. Procainamide
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Procainamide is a class IA antiarrhythmic drug that acts as a sodium channel blocker by blocking fast sodium channels. Mexiletine is a class IB antiarrhythmic drug, not class IA. Amiodarone is a class III antiarrhythmic, and Quinidine is a class IA antiarrhythmic but not a sodium channel blocker.
3. A client is starting therapy with paclitaxel. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse instruct the client to monitor?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Neutropenia
- D. Urinary retention
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Neutropenia is a common adverse effect of paclitaxel due to bone marrow suppression. Clients should be instructed to monitor for signs of infection and report any symptoms such as fever, chills, or sore throat immediately to their healthcare provider.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer acetaminophen 650 mg PO every 6 hr PRN for pain. The amount available is acetaminophen liquid 500 mg/5 mL. How many mL should the healthcare professional administer per dose?
- A. 6.5 mL
- B. 7 mL
- C. 5 mL
- D. 8 mL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer: (Desired dose / Concentration) = Volume to administer. In this case, (650 mg / 500 mg) x 5 mL = 6.5 mL. Therefore, the healthcare professional should administer 6.5 mL of acetaminophen per dose to achieve the desired 650 mg dose for pain relief. Choice A is correct because it accurately calculates the volume required based on the concentration of the liquid acetaminophen. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation based on the concentration of the liquid medication and the desired dose.
5. A client is receiving spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L
- B. Urine output 120 mL in 4 hrs
- C. Serum Potassium 5.2 mEq/L
- D. Blood Pressure 140/90 mmHg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that can lead to potassium retention. The nurse should notify the provider and withhold the medication to prevent further elevation of potassium levels, which can result in serious cardiac complications. The other findings (Serum Sodium 144 mEq/L, Urine output 120 mL in 4 hrs, and Blood Pressure 140/90 mmHg) are within normal ranges and not directly related to spironolactone therapy.
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