Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is reviewing laboratory findings and notes that a client's plasma Lithium level is 2.1 mEq/L. Which of the following is an appropriate action by the healthcare professional?

• A. Perform immediate gastric lavage.
• B. Prepare the client for hemodialysis.
• C. Administer an additional oral dose of lithium.
• D. Request a stat repeat of the laboratory test.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing immediate gastric lavage is the appropriate action for a client with severe lithium toxicity, indicated by a plasma lithium level of 2.1 mEq/L. Gastric lavage can help reduce the client's lithium level by removing the unabsorbed drug from the stomach.

2. A client with Diabetes is experiencing Nausea due to Gastroparesis. The healthcare provider should anticipate a prescription for which of the following medications?

• A. Lubiprostone
• B. Metoclopramide
• C. Bisacodyl
• D. Loperamide

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Metoclopramide, a dopamine antagonist, is indicated for treating nausea and increasing gastric motility. In the context of diabetic gastroparesis, it can alleviate bloating and nausea by enhancing gastric emptying. Lubiprostone (Choice A) is a chloride channel activator used for chronic idiopathic constipation and irritable bowel syndrome with constipation. Bisacodyl (Choice C) is a stimulant laxative primarily used for constipation. Loperamide (Choice D) is an anti-diarrheal agent and would not be appropriate for treating nausea and gastroparesis.

3. Which of the following is classified as a class IA Sodium Channel blocker?

• A. Quinidine
• B. Disopyramide
• C. Aminodarone
• D. Propafenone

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Quinidine is classified as a class IA sodium channel blocker. Class IA antiarrhythmics, like quinidine, work by blocking sodium channels and delaying repolarization. Propafenone, mentioned in the original rationale, is actually a class IC antiarrhythmic agent, not a class IA sodium channel blocker.

4. A client has ordered a thrombolytic medication for the treatment of CVA. Which type of stroke should not be treated with a thrombolytic?

• A. Hemorrhagic stroke
• B. Thrombotic stroke
• C. Both types can be treated with a thrombolytic
• D. Neither type can be treated with a thrombolytic

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Thrombolytic medications are used to dissolve blood clots. In the case of a hemorrhagic stroke, where there is bleeding in the brain, the use of thrombolytics can worsen the condition by increasing bleeding. Therefore, hemorrhagic strokes should not be treated with thrombolytic medications.

5. A client is starting therapy with rituximab. Which of the following findings should the nurse instruct the client to report?

• A. Dizziness
• B. Fever
• C. Urinary frequency
• D. Dry mouth

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse should instruct the client to report fever when starting rituximab therapy. Fever can be a sign of infection, which is a potential complication associated with rituximab. Early detection and treatment of infections are important to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Dizziness, urinary frequency, and dry mouth are not commonly associated with rituximab therapy and are less likely to be directly related to the medication's side effects. Therefore, fever is the most crucial symptom to report to healthcare providers.

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