ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Potassium
- B. Sodium
- C. Calcium
- D. Hemoglobin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, monitoring potassium levels is crucial due to the drug's potential to cause hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes potassium excretion in the urine, leading to a risk of low potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels helps in detecting and preventing hypokalemia, which can result in adverse effects like cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium, calcium, and hemoglobin levels are usually not directly affected by furosemide, making them less pertinent for monitoring in this specific scenario.
2. How should a healthcare professional care for a patient with a stage 2 pressure ulcer?
- A. Clean the area with normal saline
- B. Apply antibiotic ointment
- C. Use a hydrocolloid dressing
- D. Change the dressing daily
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Using a hydrocolloid dressing is the appropriate care for a stage 2 pressure ulcer because it provides a moist healing environment, promotes healing, and helps to prevent infection. Cleaning the area with normal saline (Choice A) is important but not the primary treatment for a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Applying antibiotic ointment (Choice B) may not be necessary unless there is a sign of infection. Changing the dressing daily (Choice D) may disrupt the healing process and is not recommended unless the dressing is soiled or compromised.
3. A nurse is assessing a client who has just received an opioid medication. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor first?
- A. Constipation.
- B. Drowsiness.
- C. Orthostatic hypotension.
- D. Respiratory depression.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client receives an opioid medication, the nurse should first monitor for respiratory depression as it is a life-threatening adverse effect associated with opioids. This can lead to inadequate ventilation and hypoxia, requiring immediate intervention. Constipation, drowsiness, and orthostatic hypotension are also common side effects of opioids but are not as immediately life-threatening as respiratory depression.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has diabetes insipidus and is receiving desmopressin. Which of the following findings indicates the medication is effective?
- A. The client's urine output decreases.
- B. The client's blood pressure increases.
- C. The client's heart rate increases.
- D. The client's urine specific gravity decreases.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'The client's urine output decreases.' Desmopressin is used to treat diabetes insipidus by reducing excessive urine output. Therefore, a decrease in urine output indicates that the medication is effectively controlling the symptoms. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because desmopressin primarily affects urine output, not blood pressure, heart rate, or urine specific gravity.
5. A client is 2 days postoperative following a hip replacement surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 88/min
- B. Redness and warmth in the calf
- C. Urine output of 30 mL/hr
- D. Heart rate of 96/min
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Redness and warmth in the calf can indicate a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which is a serious complication following hip replacement surgery. It is crucial to report this finding promptly for further evaluation and intervention. The other options, heart rates of 88/min and 96/min, are within normal limits for an adult and may not require immediate reporting. A urine output of 30 mL/hr is concerning for decreased kidney perfusion, but the priority in this case is the potential DVT due to its severe implications.
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