a nurse is caring for a client who has a new prescription for furosemide which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam

1. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, monitoring potassium levels is crucial due to the drug's potential to cause hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes potassium excretion in the urine, leading to a risk of low potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels helps in detecting and preventing hypokalemia, which can result in adverse effects like cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium, calcium, and hemoglobin levels are usually not directly affected by furosemide, making them less pertinent for monitoring in this specific scenario.

2. A nurse is providing teaching about folic acid to a client who is primigravida. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Folic acid helps prevent neural tube defects, and dietary sources like cereals and citrus fruits are good options to increase folic acid intake. Choice A is incorrect because folic acid is primarily recommended to prevent neural tube defects, not to prevent infections. Choice B is incorrect because the recommended daily intake of folic acid for pregnant women is at least 400 micrograms, not 300. Choice D is incorrect because folic acid is not typically associated with improving energy levels.

3. While caring for a client receiving an opioid analgesic for pain management, which assessment should the nurse prioritize?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's respiratory rate. When a client is receiving opioids, the priority assessment is the respiratory rate since opioids can lead to respiratory depression. Monitoring urinary output, blood pressure, and constipation are also important but not the priority in this scenario.

4. A healthcare provider is caring for a client who has been diagnosed with sepsis. Which of the following laboratory results indicates that the client is developing disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, decreased platelet count. In disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), there is widespread activation of clotting factors leading to the formation of multiple blood clots throughout the body, which can deplete platelets. A decreased platelet count is a hallmark of DIC. Elevated hemoglobin (choice A) and elevated white blood cell count (choice B) are not specific indicators of DIC. While fibrinogen levels (choice C) can be decreased in DIC due to consumption, a decreased platelet count is a more specific and early sign of DIC development.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because a urine output of 30 mL/hr indicates oliguria, which can be a sign of dehydration or kidney impairment postoperatively. This finding should be reported to the provider for further evaluation. Choices A, B, and D are within normal parameters for a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal surgery and do not raise immediate concerns. Serosanguineous drainage on the dressing is an expected finding in the early postoperative period, a heart rate of 88/min is within the normal range, and a blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg is also within normal limits.

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