ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam
1. A client has a new prescription for furosemide. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor?
- A. Potassium
- B. Sodium
- C. Calcium
- D. Hemoglobin
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is prescribed furosemide, monitoring potassium levels is crucial due to the drug's potential to cause hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes potassium excretion in the urine, leading to a risk of low potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels helps in detecting and preventing hypokalemia, which can result in adverse effects like cardiac dysrhythmias. Sodium, calcium, and hemoglobin levels are usually not directly affected by furosemide, making them less pertinent for monitoring in this specific scenario.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a hip arthroplasty. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?
- A. Heart rate of 90/min
- B. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
- C. Warmth and redness in the calf
- D. Pink-tinged urine
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, warmth and redness in the calf. These symptoms may indicate a deep vein thrombosis (DVT), a serious complication following hip arthroplasty that requires immediate attention. A heart rate of 90/min and blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg are within normal ranges for a postoperative client and do not indicate an urgent issue. Pink-tinged urine may suggest blood in the urine, which should be monitored but is not as critical as the potential DVT.
3. A nurse is admitting a client who has schizophrenia and experiences auditory hallucinations. The client states, 'It's hard not to listen to the voices.' Which of the following questions should the nurse ask?
- A. Do you understand that the voices are not real?
- B. Why do you think the voices are talking to you?
- C. Have you tried going to a private place when this occurs?
- D. What helps you ignore what you are hearing?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: What helps you ignore what you are hearing?' Asking the client about coping mechanisms is essential in assisting them to manage auditory hallucinations. Choice A is incorrect as questioning the reality of the voices may not be helpful. Choice B delves into the cause of the hallucinations rather than coping strategies. Choice C focuses on isolation rather than addressing the client's coping mechanisms.
4. A client with schizophrenia starting therapy with clozapine is being discharged. Which symptom should the client report to the provider as the highest priority?
- A. Constipation
- B. Blurred vision
- C. Fever
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. When a client is taking clozapine, fever can indicate serious conditions such as infection or severe reactions, which need immediate medical attention. Constipation (choice A), blurred vision (choice B), and dry mouth (choice D) are common side effects of clozapine but are not as urgent as fever. Constipation can be managed with dietary changes or medications, blurred vision can improve over time, and dry mouth can be relieved with frequent sips of water.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is 2 hr postoperative following an inguinal hernia repair. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Heart rate of 88/min
- B. Pain rating of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10
- C. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg
- D. Urine output of 20 mL/hr
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A low urine output of 20 mL/hr, less than the expected 30 mL/hr or more, could indicate renal impairment or inadequate fluid status postoperatively. In this scenario, early detection and intervention are crucial to prevent further complications. The other findings - heart rate of 88/min, pain rating of 4, and blood pressure of 110/70 mm Hg - are within normal limits for a client 2 hr postoperative following an inguinal hernia repair and do not raise immediate concerns.
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