a nurse is assessing a client who is taking digoxin to treat heart failure which of the following findings is a manifestation of digoxin toxicity
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Pharmacology

1. A client is being assessed by a healthcare provider while taking Digoxin to manage heart failure. Which of the following findings is a manifestation of digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct manifestation of digoxin toxicity is anorexia, not bruising, metallic taste, or muscle pain. Other symptoms of digoxin toxicity include blurred vision, stomach pain, and diarrhea. It is crucial for healthcare providers to promptly identify these signs to prevent severe complications.

2. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer a transfusion of 300 mL of pooled platelets for a client who has severe Thrombocytopenia. How long should the healthcare professional plan to administer the transfusion over?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Platelets are fragile components that must be administered quickly to maintain their effectiveness and minimize the risk of clumping. The recommended administration time for platelets is within 15 to 30 minutes per unit. This rapid administration helps ensure the platelets remain viable and functional for the client receiving the transfusion. Therefore, the correct answer is to administer the transfusion within 30 minutes per unit. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they exceed the recommended administration time for platelets, which could compromise their efficacy and pose risks to the client.

3. When teaching parents of a school-age child about transdermal Methylphenidate, which instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When administering transdermal Methylphenidate, the patch should be left on for 9 hours per day to ensure optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. This duration helps maintain a consistent level of the drug in the child's system. Incorrect options: A) Applying one patch once per day is not the correct dosing regimen for transdermal Methylphenidate. C) The patch should not be applied to the child's waistline as it is recommended to apply it to a clean, dry area. D) Using the opened tray within 6 months is not directly related to the administration of transdermal Methylphenidate.

4. A client is receiving moderate sedation with Diazepam IV and is oversedated. Which of the following medications should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Flumazenil is a competitive benzodiazepine antagonist that can reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines like Diazepam. In cases of oversedation, administering Flumazenil can help counteract the excessive sedation and other effects of Diazepam, thereby promoting the client's recovery and preventing potential complications. Ketamine (Choice A) is a dissociative anesthetic and not used to reverse benzodiazepine sedation. Naltrexone (Choice B) is an opioid receptor antagonist, not indicated for benzodiazepine oversedation. Fluvoxamine (Choice D) is an antidepressant and not used to reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines.

5. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of Verapamil, leading to increased blood levels of the medication, which can potentiate its effects, potentially causing adverse reactions like hypotension and bradycardia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Taking Verapamil at bedtime is not a specific instruction related to its metabolism or side effects. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia is not directly related to Verapamil use. Increasing potassium-rich foods intake is not necessary with Verapamil and could potentially lead to hyperkalemia in some cases.

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