Nursing Elites

1. A client has a new prescription for Enalapril. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?

• A. Dry cough
• B. Weight gain
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Nausea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry cough. A persistent dry cough is a common adverse effect of Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor. Enalapril can cause the accumulation of bradykinin, leading to cough. Monitoring for a persistent dry cough is crucial as it may indicate the need for further evaluation and possible medication adjustment. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with Enalapril use and are less likely to be monitored as adverse effects.

2. A client is starting a course of Metronidazole to treat an infection. For which of the following adverse effects should the client stop taking Metronidazole and notify the provider?

• A. Metallic taste
• B. Nausea
• C. Ataxia
• D. Dark-colored urine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Ataxia.' Ataxia is a sign of central nervous system (CNS) toxicity, which can be a severe adverse effect of Metronidazole. Metallic taste and nausea are common side effects of Metronidazole but do not require stopping the medication unless they persist or worsen. Dark-colored urine is not typically associated with Metronidazole and does not indicate a severe adverse effect.

3. A healthcare provider is planning care for a client with brain cancer experiencing headaches. Which of the following adjuvant medications is indicated for this client?

• A. Dexamethasone
• B. Methylphenidate
• C. Hydroxyzine
• D. Amitriptyline

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Dexamethasone, a glucocorticoid, is indicated for clients with brain cancer experiencing headaches as it decreases inflammation and swelling. It is commonly used to reduce cerebral edema and relieve pressure caused by the tumor. Methylphenidate (Choice B) is a central nervous system stimulant used in conditions like ADHD and narcolepsy, not for brain cancer headaches. Hydroxyzine (Choice C) is an antihistamine used for anxiety and allergic conditions, not indicated for brain cancer headaches. Amitriptyline (Choice D) is a tricyclic antidepressant used for depression, neuropathic pain, and migraine prophylaxis, but not typically indicated for brain cancer headaches.

4. A healthcare provider is providing discharge instructions to a client who is prescribed Prednisone. Which of the following dietary instructions should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
• B. Increase your intake of dairy products.
• C. Avoid foods high in vitamin K.
• D. Decrease your intake of protein.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to increase the intake of potassium-rich foods (Choice A). Prednisone can cause potassium depletion, so clients should increase their intake of foods such as bananas, oranges, and spinach. Potassium-rich foods help maintain electrolyte balance and prevent complications associated with low potassium levels, such as muscle weakness and irregular heartbeats. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing dairy products (Choice B) or avoiding foods high in vitamin K (Choice C) are not specifically related to Prednisone therapy. Decreasing protein intake (Choice D) is also not necessary in this case.

5. When starting therapy with bicalutamide, a client should be instructed to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

• A. Muscle pain
• B. Flushing
• C. Gynecomastia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Gynecomastia. Bicalutamide, due to its antiandrogenic properties, can lead to gynecomastia in clients. This condition involves the development of breast tissue in males and is an important adverse effect to monitor when taking this medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Muscle pain and flushing are not commonly associated with bicalutamide use. Hyperglycemia is not a typical adverse effect of bicalutamide therapy.

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