ATI RN
ATI Pharmacology Test Bank
1. A client has been prescribed Methotrexate to treat Rheumatoid Arthritis. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide?
- A. Take this medication with food to prevent nausea.
- B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- C. Wear sunscreen when outdoors while taking this medication.
- D. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Methotrexate is hepatotoxic, and avoiding alcohol is crucial to prevent liver damage. However, Option A (Take this medication with food to prevent nausea) could also be correct, as Methotrexate commonly causes nausea, and taking it with food can help alleviate this side effect. However, the most important instruction is to avoid alcohol due to the risk of liver toxicity.
2. A client has a new prescription for Verapamil. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication at bedtime.
- B. Monitor for signs of hyperglycemia.
- C. Avoid drinking grapefruit juice.
- D. Increase your intake of potassium-rich foods.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Verapamil is to avoid drinking grapefruit juice. Grapefruit juice can inhibit the metabolism of Verapamil, leading to increased blood levels of the medication. This can result in a higher risk of adverse effects, such as hypotension and bradycardia. Therefore, it is essential for the client to avoid grapefruit juice while taking Verapamil to prevent potential complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because taking Verapamil at bedtime, monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia, and increasing potassium-rich foods intake are not specific instructions related to Verapamil therapy and do not address the potential interaction with grapefruit juice.
3. A healthcare professional in an emergency unit is reviewing the medical record of a client who is being evaluated for angle-closure glaucoma. Which of the following findings is indicative of this condition?
- A. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision
- B. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision
- C. Severe pain around the eyes
- D. Intraocular pressure 12 mm Hg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Severe pain around the eyes that radiates over the face is a classic symptom of acute angle-closure glaucoma. This intense pain is often associated with other symptoms such as blurred vision, halos around lights, redness in the eye, and sometimes nausea and vomiting. Immediate medical attention is required to prevent permanent vision loss. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Insidious onset of painless loss of vision is more indicative of conditions like macular degeneration. Gradual reduction in peripheral vision is commonly seen in conditions like open-angle glaucoma. An intraocular pressure of 12 mm Hg is within the normal range and is not typical of angle-closure glaucoma.
4. A healthcare provider is caring for a group of clients who are not protected against Varicella. The healthcare provider should prepare to administer the Varicella vaccine at this time to which of the following clients?
- A. 24-year-old woman in the third trimester of pregnancy
- B. 12-year-old child who has a severe allergy to neomycin
- C. 2-month-old infant who has no health problems
- D. 32-year-old man who has essential hypertension
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is the 32-year-old man who has essential hypertension. Individuals who did not receive two doses of the varicella vaccine earlier in life should be immunized. Essential hypertension is not a contraindication for this vaccine, making it safe to administer to this client. Choice A is incorrect because administering the Varicella vaccine is contraindicated during pregnancy due to the risk of transmission to the fetus. Choice B is incorrect because a severe allergy to neomycin is a contraindication to the Varicella vaccine, which contains a trace amount of neomycin. Choice C is incorrect because the Varicella vaccine is not recommended for infants under 12 months of age.
5. A client is receiving Morphine IV for pain management. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to monitor for adverse effects?
- A. Monitor the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes.
- B. Monitor the client's blood pressure every 30 minutes.
- C. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation every hour.
- D. Monitor the client's heart rate every 5 minutes.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to monitor for adverse effects of Morphine IV is to check the client's respiratory rate every 15 minutes. Respiratory depression is a potentially life-threatening adverse effect of Morphine. Monitoring the respiratory rate frequently allows for early detection and intervention if needed. Monitoring blood pressure, oxygen saturation, or heart rate alone may not provide early signs of respiratory depression, which is a critical adverse effect of Morphine IV.
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