Nursing Elites

1. A client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings is at risk for aspiration. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 15 degrees
• B. Check gastric residual volumes every 6 hours
• C. Monitor the pH of gastric aspirate
• D. Instill 10 mL of air into the tube before feeding

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Checking gastric residual volumes every 6 hours is essential in preventing aspiration in clients receiving continuous enteral feedings. This practice helps determine if the stomach is adequately emptying, reducing the risk of regurgitation and aspiration. Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees, not 15 degrees, is recommended to further prevent aspiration by reducing the risk of reflux. Monitoring the pH of gastric aspirate is important to assess tube placement but does not directly prevent aspiration. Instilling air into the tube before feeding is not a recommended practice and does not prevent aspiration.

2. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for metformin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take this medication at bedtime.
• B. You should expect your urine to turn orange while taking this medication.
• C. This medication can cause you to gain weight.
• D. Take this medication with food to reduce gastrointestinal discomfort.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because taking metformin with food helps reduce gastrointestinal discomfort, a common side effect of the medication. Choice A is incorrect as metformin is usually taken with meals to minimize side effects. Choice B is incorrect because metformin does not typically cause urine discoloration. Choice C is incorrect as metformin is associated with weight loss or weight neutrality rather than weight gain.

3. A nurse is creating a plan of care for a newly admitted client who has obsessive-compulsive disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse take?

• A. Allow the client enough time to perform rituals
• B. Give the client autonomy in scheduling activities
• C. Discourage the client from exploring irrational fears
• D. Provide negative reinforcement for ritualistic behaviors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with obsessive-compulsive disorder is to allow the client enough time to perform rituals. This helps manage anxiety and stress in individuals with OCD. Allowing time for rituals can provide a sense of control and reduce distress. Choice B, giving the client autonomy in scheduling activities, may not address the core symptoms of OCD related to rituals and compulsions. Choice C, discouraging the client from exploring irrational fears, goes against the principles of exposure therapy, which is a common treatment for OCD. Choice D, providing negative reinforcement for ritualistic behaviors, is not recommended as it can reinforce the behavior rather than help the client manage it.

4. How should a healthcare provider monitor a patient who has been prescribed digoxin?

• A. Monitor potassium levels
• B. Monitor heart rate
• C. Check digoxin levels
• D. Check blood glucose levels

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct way to monitor a patient who has been prescribed digoxin is by checking digoxin levels. Digoxin is a medication used to treat various heart conditions, and monitoring its levels in the blood is crucial to prevent toxicity. Monitoring potassium levels (Choice A) is important as well, as digoxin can affect potassium levels, but checking digoxin levels is more specific to monitoring the medication itself. Monitoring heart rate (Choice B) is relevant but does not directly assess the medication levels. Checking blood glucose levels (Choice D) is not typically indicated specifically for patients prescribed digoxin.

5. A nurse is caring for an adolescent who has sickle-cell anemia. Which of the following manifestations indicates acute chest syndrome and should be immediately reported to the provider?

• A. Substernal retractions
• B. Hematuria
• C. Temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F)
• D. Sneezing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Substernal retractions indicate respiratory distress in a sickle-cell client, which can be a sign of acute chest syndrome. This condition is a serious complication of sickle-cell anemia characterized by chest pain, fever, cough, and shortness of breath. Reporting this symptom promptly is crucial for timely intervention. Choice B, hematuria, is not typically associated with acute chest syndrome but may indicate other issues such as a urinary tract infection. Choice C, a temperature of 37.9°C (100.2°F), is slightly elevated but not a specific indicator of acute chest syndrome. Choice D, sneezing, is not a typical symptom of acute chest syndrome and would not warrant immediate reporting to the provider in this context.

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