ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a chest tube. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Drainage of 75 mL in the past 24 hours.
- B. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber.
- C. Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber.
- D. Tidaling in the water seal chamber.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber should be reported to the provider as it can indicate an air leak. This finding suggests that air is escaping from the pleural space, which can lead to lung collapse or pneumothorax. Drainage of 75 mL in the past 24 hours is within the expected range for a client with a chest tube and is not a cause for concern. Intermittent bubbling in the water seal chamber is a normal finding that indicates the system is functioning properly. Tidaling in the water seal chamber is also an expected finding that shows the fluctuation of fluid with the client's breathing and is not alarming.
2. A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving education from a nurse on preventing long-term complications. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will keep my blood glucose levels within the target range.
- B. I will check my feet daily for any open sores or wounds.
- C. I will monitor my blood pressure regularly.
- D. I will consume foods that are high in fiber.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'I will check my feet daily for any open sores or wounds.' This statement shows an understanding of the importance of foot care in preventing complications like diabetic foot ulcers. Monitoring blood glucose levels (choice A) is crucial but not directly related to foot care. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) is important for overall health but does not specifically address preventing long-term complications of diabetes. Consuming foods high in fiber (choice D) is beneficial for managing blood sugar levels but does not directly address preventing foot complications.
3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Encourage the client to breathe deeply and cough every 4 hours.
- B. Provide a diet that is high in carbohydrates and low in protein.
- C. Teach the client pursed-lip breathing technique.
- D. Restrict the client's fluid intake to 1,500 mL per day.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Teach the client pursed-lip breathing technique. Pursed-lip breathing helps clients with COPD improve oxygenation and reduce shortness of breath. Choice A is incorrect because deep breathing and coughing are not recommended every 4 hours for clients with COPD. Choice B is incorrect because a diet high in carbohydrates and low in protein is not specifically indicated for COPD. Choice D is incorrect because fluid restriction is not a standard intervention for COPD unless the client has comorbid conditions that necessitate it.
4. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has a prescription for spironolactone. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 5.0 mEq/L
- B. Blood pressure 136/84 mm Hg
- C. Sodium 140 mEq/L
- D. Calcium 9.5 mg/dL
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A potassium level of 5.0 mEq/L is at the upper limit of normal and should be monitored closely in clients taking spironolactone, which is potassium-sparing. Elevated potassium levels can lead to hyperkalemia, especially in individuals on potassium-sparing diuretics like spironolactone. Monitoring and reporting high potassium levels are crucial to prevent potential complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Blood pressure (choice B), sodium level (choice C), and calcium level (choice D) are not directly related to the use of spironolactone and do not require immediate reporting in this scenario.
5. In an emergency department following a community disaster, a healthcare provider is performing triage for multiple clients. To which of the following types of injuries should the provider assign the highest priority?
- A. Below-the-knee amputation.
- B. Fractured tibia.
- C. 95% full-thickness body burn.
- D. 10 cm laceration to the forearm.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During disaster triage, clients with severe injuries that are immediately life-threatening and have a high likelihood of mortality without intervention are assigned the highest priority. A below-the-knee amputation falls into this category as it indicates a critical injury that requires immediate attention to prevent further complications or loss of life. Fractured tibia, a 95% full-thickness body burn, and a 10 cm laceration to the forearm, while serious, do not pose the same level of immediate life-threatening risk as a below-the-knee amputation in the context of disaster triage.
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