Nursing Elites

1. A client has a chest tube in place connected to a closed chest drainage system. Which of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client's lung has re-expanded?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 95%
• B. No fluctuations in the water seal chamber
• C. No reports of pleuritic chest pain
• D. Occasional bubbling in the water-seal chamber

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The absence of fluctuations in the water seal chamber indicates that the client's lung has re-expanded. This finding suggests that the negative pressure in the pleural space is restored, preventing air from entering the system. Oxygen saturation, absence of pleuritic chest pain, and occasional bubbling in the water-seal chamber are important assessments but do not specifically indicate lung re-expansion.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a new onset of confusion. Which laboratory value should the professional check first?

• A. Blood glucose level
• B. Serum sodium level
• C. Serum calcium level
• D. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client presenting with a new onset of confusion, checking the blood glucose level first is crucial as hypoglycemia can cause confusion and is easily correctable. Addressing hypoglycemia promptly is essential to prevent further complications.

3. A client with a mediastinal chest tube is being assessed by a nurse. Which symptoms require the nurse's immediate intervention? (SATA)

• A. Production of pink sputum
• B. Tracheal deviation
• C. Pain at insertion site
• D. Sudden onset of shortness of breath

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Immediate intervention is necessary when a client with a mediastinal chest tube exhibits tracheal deviation since it may indicate a tension pneumothorax. This condition requires prompt attention to prevent serious complications. While the production of pink sputum and pain at the insertion site should be monitored and reported, they do not typically require immediate intervention. Sudden onset of shortness of breath could indicate various issues related to the chest tube but is not as critical as tracheal deviation in this context.

4. A client is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client is able to ambulate in the hall without dyspnea.
• B. The client has a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute.
• C. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• D. The client has a productive cough.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Effective oxygen therapy should improve the client's ability to perform activities without dyspnea. This indicates that the oxygen therapy is adequately supporting the client's respiratory needs. An oxygen saturation of 92% may suggest the need for a higher flow rate to improve oxygenation. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is elevated, indicating potential respiratory distress. A productive cough does not necessarily indicate effective oxygen therapy, as it is a symptom of respiratory irritation or infection, not oxygenation status.

5. During an acute asthma attack in a client with asthma, what medication should the nurse administer first?

• A. Oral corticosteroids
• B. Short-acting beta agonist
• C. Leukotriene receptor antagonist
• D. Long-acting beta agonist

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During an acute asthma attack, the priority is to quickly relieve bronchospasm and improve breathing. Short-acting beta agonists, like albuterol, are the first-line medications as they rapidly relax bronchial muscles, providing immediate relief. Oral corticosteroids are used as adjunct therapy to reduce airway inflammation over time, while leukotriene receptor antagonists and long-acting beta agonists are not appropriate for immediate relief during an acute attack.

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