Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a fracture of the femur. Vital signs are obtained on admission and again in 2 hours. Which of the following changes in assessment should indicate to the healthcare professional that the client could be developing a serious complication?

• A. Increased respiratory rate from 18 to 44/min
• B. Increased oral temperature from 36.6° C (97.8° F) to 37° C (98.6° F)
• C. Increased blood pressure from 112/68 to 120/72 mm Hg
• D. Increased heart rate from 68 to 72/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An increased respiratory rate from 18 to 44/min is a significant change that should alert the healthcare professional to a potential serious complication. Such a drastic increase in respiratory rate may indicate respiratory distress or hypoxia, which are critical conditions requiring immediate attention. The other options show minor changes in vital signs that are within normal limits and are less likely to indicate a serious complication.

2. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is being taught by a nurse. What nutrition information should the nurse include in the teaching?

• A. Avoid drinking fluids just before and during meals.
• B. Rest before meals if experiencing dyspnea.
• C. Consume about six small meals a day.
• D. Consume high-fiber foods to promote gastric emptying.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: While some of the other options may be helpful, the most appropriate advice for a client with COPD is to consume high-fiber foods to promote gastric emptying. Avoiding fluids just before and during meals can help prevent bloating, resting before meals can assist with dyspnea, and having several small meals a day can help reduce bloating. However, fibrous foods can lead to gas production, causing abdominal bloating and potentially worsening shortness of breath. Increasing calorie and protein intake is essential to prevent malnourishment. It is also important to avoid excessive carbohydrate intake, as it can increase carbon dioxide production and the risk of acidosis in COPD patients.

3. Prior to a thoracentesis, what intervention should the nurse complete?

• A. Measure oxygen saturation before and after the procedure.
• B. Verify that the client has given informed consent.
• C. Explain the procedure briefly to the client and their family.
• D. Ensure informed consent has been obtained from the client.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Before a thoracentesis procedure, it is crucial to ensure that the client has given informed consent. This process involves explaining the procedure, its risks, benefits, and alternatives to the client, and obtaining their signature on the consent form. Verifying informed consent is a vital legal and ethical step to protect the client's autonomy and ensure they have made an informed decision about the procedure.

4. A client tests positive for alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency and asks the nurse, What does this mean? How should the nurse respond?

• A. Your children may be at high risk for developing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
• B. I will arrange for a genetic counselor to discuss your condition.
• C. Your risk for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is higher, particularly if you smoke.
• D. This is a recessive gene that should not affect your health.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency is associated with a higher risk of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), especially if the individual smokes. This condition is caused by a recessive gene. Individuals with one allele typically produce enough AAT to prevent COPD unless they smoke. However, those with two alleles are at high risk for COPD even without exposure to smoke or other irritants. Being a carrier of AAT deficiency does not guarantee that one's children will develop the disease; it depends on the AAT levels of the partner. While involving a genetic counselor may be beneficial in the long run, the immediate concern of the client's question should be addressed first.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who had a myocardial infarction. Upon auscultating heart sounds, the provider hears the following sound. What action by the provider is most appropriate?

• A. Assess the client's lung sounds.
• B. Call the Rapid Response Team.
• C. Have the client sit upright.
• D. Listen to the client's lung sounds.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The sound described is an S3 heart sound, which can indicate heart failure. The next appropriate action for the provider is to listen to the client's lung sounds. Lung sounds can provide additional information about the client's condition, especially when abnormal heart sounds are present. Calling the Rapid Response Team is not warranted based solely on the heart sound assessment. Having the client sit upright is not directly related to addressing the abnormal heart sound.

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