Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a fracture of the femur. Vital signs are obtained on admission and again in 2 hours. Which of the following changes in assessment should indicate to the healthcare professional that the client could be developing a serious complication?

• A. Increased respiratory rate from 18 to 44/min
• B. Increased oral temperature from 36.6° C (97.8° F) to 37° C (98.6° F)
• C. Increased blood pressure from 112/68 to 120/72 mm Hg
• D. Increased heart rate from 68 to 72/min

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An increased respiratory rate from 18 to 44/min is a significant change that should alert the healthcare professional to a potential serious complication. Such a drastic increase in respiratory rate may indicate respiratory distress or hypoxia, which are critical conditions requiring immediate attention. The other options show minor changes in vital signs that are within normal limits and are less likely to indicate a serious complication.

2. A client had an evacuation of a subdural hematoma. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

• A. Observe for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leaks from the evacuation site.
• B. Assess for an increase in temperature.
• C. Check the oximeter.
• D. Monitor for manifestations of increased intracranial pressure.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When caring for a client who had an evacuation of a subdural hematoma, the nurse's priority is to check the oximeter. Monitoring oxygen saturation is crucial to ensure adequate tissue oxygenation, especially after such a procedure. This assessment helps in early detection of hypoxemia, which can be detrimental to the client's recovery. While observing for CSF leaks, assessing for temperature changes, and monitoring for signs of increased intracranial pressure are important, checking the oximeter takes precedence to address immediate oxygenation needs.

3. A nurse is assessing a client with a history of seizures. Which assessment finding requires immediate intervention?

• A. The client is experiencing an aura.
• B. The client's antiseizure medication level is within the therapeutic range.
• C. The client has been seizure-free for 2 years.
• D. The client's seizure activity lasts longer than 5 minutes.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Seizure activity lasting longer than 5 minutes requires immediate intervention as it can lead to status epilepticus, a medical emergency.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) appears thin and disheveled. Which question should the nurse ask first?

• A. Do you have a strong support system?
• B. What do you understand about your disease?
• C. Do you experience shortness of breath with basic activities?
• D. What medications are you prescribed to take each day?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In clients with severe COPD, shortness of breath can significantly impact their ability to perform basic activities like bathing and eating. Therefore, the nurse's priority should be to assess if shortness of breath is interfering with the client's basic activities, which can provide crucial information for planning and managing care.

5. During an assessment, a client with a long history of smoking and suspected laryngeal cancer will most likely report which early manifestation?

• A. Dysphagia
• B. Hoarseness
• C. Dyspnea
• D. Weight loss

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In clients with laryngeal cancer, hoarseness is often one of the earliest manifestations due to vocal cord involvement. The irritation and inflammation caused by the tumor affect the vocal cords, leading to changes in voice quality. Dysphagia (choice A) typically occurs later as the tumor grows and interferes with swallowing. Dyspnea (choice C) and weight loss (choice D) may occur as the cancer progresses, but hoarseness is usually among the first signs to manifest in laryngeal cancer.

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