Nursing Elites

1. A client who had coronary artery bypass grafting yesterday needs care. What actions can the nurse delegate to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)? (SATA)

• A. administer antibiotics every 4 hrs
• B. Encourage the client to use the spirometer every 4 hours.
• C. Ensure the client wears TED hose or sequential compression devices.
• D. Have the client rate pain on a 0-to-10 scale and report to the nurse.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse can delegate tasks such as assisting the client to get up in the chair or ambulate to the bathroom, applying TED hose or sequential compression devices, and taking/recording vital signs to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Using the spirometer should be encouraged every hour the day after surgery by the nurse. Assessing pain using a 0-to-10 scale is a nursing assessment. However, if the client reports pain, the UAP should inform the nurse for a more detailed assessment.

2. What comfort measure may the nurse delegate to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) for a client receiving O2 at 4 liters per nasal cannula?

• A. Apply water-soluble ointment to nares and lips.
• B. Periodically adjust the oxygen flow rate.
• C. Remove the tubing from the client's nose.
• D. Turn the client every 2 hours or as needed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is receiving oxygen at a high flow rate, it can cause drying of the nasal passages and lips. Therefore, a comfort measure that can be delegated to unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) is applying water-soluble ointment to the client's nares and lips. Adjusting the oxygen flow rate should be done by licensed nursing staff, not UAP. Removing the tubing can disrupt the oxygen delivery and should be performed by trained personnel. Turning the client every 2 hours is a general comfort measure but is not specific to addressing the drying effects of oxygen therapy.

3. A client is receiving oxygen therapy via nasal cannula. Which finding indicates that the therapy is effective?

• A. The client is able to ambulate in the hall without dyspnea.
• B. The client has a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute.
• C. The client's oxygen saturation is 92%.
• D. The client has a productive cough.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Effective oxygen therapy should improve the client's ability to perform activities without dyspnea. This indicates that the oxygen therapy is adequately supporting the client's respiratory needs. An oxygen saturation of 92% may suggest the need for a higher flow rate to improve oxygenation. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is elevated, indicating potential respiratory distress. A productive cough does not necessarily indicate effective oxygen therapy, as it is a symptom of respiratory irritation or infection, not oxygenation status.

4. During an assessment in the emergency department, an older adult client with community-acquired pneumonia is found to be confused. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

• A. Unequal pupils
• B. Hypertension
• C. Tympany upon chest percussion
• D. Confusion

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Confusion is a common finding in older adult clients with pneumonia, often indicating hypoxia. Hypertension, unequal pupils, and tympany upon chest percussion are not typically associated with community-acquired pneumonia in older adults.

5. A client tests positive for alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency and asks the nurse, What does this mean? How should the nurse respond?

• A. Your children may be at high risk for developing chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
• B. I will arrange for a genetic counselor to discuss your condition.
• C. Your risk for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is higher, particularly if you smoke.
• D. This is a recessive gene that should not affect your health.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Alpha1-antitrypsin (AAT) deficiency is associated with a higher risk of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), especially if the individual smokes. This condition is caused by a recessive gene. Individuals with one allele typically produce enough AAT to prevent COPD unless they smoke. However, those with two alleles are at high risk for COPD even without exposure to smoke or other irritants. Being a carrier of AAT deficiency does not guarantee that one's children will develop the disease; it depends on the AAT levels of the partner. While involving a genetic counselor may be beneficial in the long run, the immediate concern of the client's question should be addressed first.

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