Nursing Elites

1. A 52-year-old client with a history of angina has been prescribed transdermal nitroglycerin. Which of the following adverse effects is not associated with this therapy?

• A. Tolerance
• B. Orthostatic hypotension
• C. Headache
• D. Productive cough

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Productive cough. Nitroglycerin therapy can lead to adverse effects such as tolerance, orthostatic hypotension, and headache. However, it is not known to cause a productive cough. Tolerance may develop over time, requiring dose adjustments. Orthostatic hypotension can occur due to vasodilation effects, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. Headache is a common side effect due to vasodilation of cranial blood vessels. Productive cough is not a recognized adverse effect associated with transdermal nitroglycerin therapy.

2. A nurse is reviewing the medication class benzodiazepines. The nurse would use caution when administering benzodiazepines to which of the below clients?

• A. A client with glaucoma
• B. A client with renal failure
• C. A client with hypertension
• D. A client with insomnia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Benzodiazepines should be used cautiously in clients with glaucoma because these medications can increase intraocular pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because renal failure, hypertension, and insomnia are not contraindications for administering benzodiazepines.

3. A client prescribed lisinopril for hypertension may experience which of the following side effects that the nurse should monitor for?

• A. Cough
• B. Weight gain
• C. Dry mouth
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A persistent dry cough is a common side effect of lisinopril. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor that can cause a cough due to the accumulation of bradykinin. Weight gain, dry mouth, and hyperglycemia are not typically associated with lisinopril use, making them incorrect choices in this scenario.

4. Before administering blood products, which action should be taken?

• A. Assess the client's temperature
• B. Document client response
• C. Prime IV tubing with 0.45% sodium chloride
• D. Administer epinephrine

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct answer: Before administering blood products, the client's temperature must be assessed to establish a baseline and monitor for transfusion reactions. Choice B is incorrect because documenting client response should occur after administering the blood products. Choice C is incorrect as priming IV tubing with 0.45% sodium chloride is not directly related to assessing the client before administering blood products. Choice D is incorrect because administering epinephrine is not a routine action before administering blood products.

5. A nurse is caring for a client receiving IV vancomycin. The nurse notes flushing of the client's neck and chest. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Stop the infusion
• B. Document the findings as a harmless reaction
• C. Slow the infusion rate
• D. Administer diphenhydramine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a client receiving IV vancomycin shows flushing of the neck and chest is to slow the infusion rate. Flushing is a common sign of Red Man Syndrome, which is associated with rapid infusions of vancomycin. Slowing down the infusion rate can help prevent further flushing and the development of Red Man Syndrome. Stopping the infusion (Choice A) may be too drastic if the symptoms are mild and can be managed by slowing the rate. Documenting the findings as a harmless reaction (Choice B) is incorrect because flushing should be addressed promptly to prevent complications. Administering diphenhydramine (Choice D) is not the initial or best intervention for flushing associated with vancomycin; slowing the infusion rate is the priority.

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