a 52 year old client with a history of angina has been prescribed transdermal nitroglycerin which of the following adverse effects is not associated w
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1

1. A 52-year-old client with a history of angina has been prescribed transdermal nitroglycerin. Which of the following adverse effects is not associated with this therapy?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Productive cough. Nitroglycerin therapy can lead to adverse effects such as tolerance, orthostatic hypotension, and headache. However, it is not known to cause a productive cough. Tolerance may develop over time, requiring dose adjustments. Orthostatic hypotension can occur due to vasodilation effects, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. Headache is a common side effect due to vasodilation of cranial blood vessels. Productive cough is not a recognized adverse effect associated with transdermal nitroglycerin therapy.

2. A healthcare provider is reviewing the client's history before administering opioid pain medication. Which of the following conditions is a contraindication to opioid therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Renal failure is a contraindication to opioid therapy due to the risk of drug accumulation and toxicity. Asthma, diabetes mellitus, and obesity are not contraindications to opioid therapy. Asthma is a respiratory condition that can be managed alongside opioids, diabetes mellitus and obesity do not directly contraindicate opioid therapy.

3. A client has been prescribed metoclopramide. Which of the following should the nurse include in client education regarding this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Notify your provider if you experience restlessness or spasms of the face or neck.' Metoclopramide can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms such as restlessness or facial spasms, which are serious and require immediate medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Insomnia is not a common side effect of metoclopramide. Increasing fluid intake is usually recommended to prevent dehydration caused by potential side effects like diarrhea. Urinary frequency is not a typical side effect associated with metoclopramide.

4. A client has been prescribed vasopressin for the treatment of diabetes insipidus. What is the expected pharmacologic action of this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: To increase reabsorption of water in the renal tubules. Vasopressin, also known as antidiuretic hormone (ADH), works by increasing the reabsorption of water in the renal tubules, which helps to concentrate urine and reduce excessive urination in diabetes insipidus. Choice A is incorrect as vasopressin does not stimulate the pancreas to secrete insulin. Choice B is incorrect as vasopressin does not affect the absorption of glucose in the intestine. Choice D is incorrect as vasopressin's primary action is not to increase blood pressure, although it can have some vasoconstrictive effects.

5. A nurse is administering metformin to a client with type 2 diabetes. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor for in this client?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Lactic acidosis. Lactic acidosis is a rare but serious adverse effect of metformin use. Metformin is not known to cause hyperglycemia or hypoglycemia. Diarrhea is a common gastrointestinal side effect of metformin but is not as serious as lactic acidosis, which requires immediate medical attention.

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