a nurse is reviewing the clients history before administering opioid pain medication which of the following conditions is a contraindication to opioid
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Capstone Pharmacology Assessment 1

1. A healthcare provider is reviewing the client's history before administering opioid pain medication. Which of the following conditions is a contraindication to opioid therapy?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Renal failure is a contraindication to opioid therapy due to the risk of drug accumulation and toxicity. Asthma, diabetes mellitus, and obesity are not contraindications to opioid therapy. Asthma is a respiratory condition that can be managed alongside opioids, diabetes mellitus and obesity do not directly contraindicate opioid therapy.

2. Disulfiram is taken by a client daily for abstinence maintenance. What is an adverse effect of this therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hepatotoxicity. Disulfiram is known to cause hepatotoxicity as a severe adverse effect. This occurs due to the inhibition of aldehyde dehydrogenase, leading to the accumulation of acetaldehyde when alcohol is consumed. Wernicke's aphasia (Choice B) is a language disorder unrelated to disulfiram therapy. Suicidal ideations (Choice C) may be associated with certain medications, but it is not a common adverse effect of disulfiram. Diarrhea (Choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of disulfiram.

3. A client has been prescribed metoclopramide. Which of the following should the nurse include in client education regarding this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Notify your provider if you experience restlessness or spasms of the face or neck.' Metoclopramide can lead to extrapyramidal symptoms such as restlessness or facial spasms, which are serious and require immediate medical attention. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Insomnia is not a common side effect of metoclopramide. Increasing fluid intake is usually recommended to prevent dehydration caused by potential side effects like diarrhea. Urinary frequency is not a typical side effect associated with metoclopramide.

4. A 52-year-old client with a history of angina has been prescribed transdermal nitroglycerin. Which of the following adverse effects is not associated with this therapy?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Productive cough. Nitroglycerin therapy can lead to adverse effects such as tolerance, orthostatic hypotension, and headache. However, it is not known to cause a productive cough. Tolerance may develop over time, requiring dose adjustments. Orthostatic hypotension can occur due to vasodilation effects, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. Headache is a common side effect due to vasodilation of cranial blood vessels. Productive cough is not a recognized adverse effect associated with transdermal nitroglycerin therapy.

5. A client is prescribed spironolactone. Which of the following findings would indicate an adverse effect of this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is the correct answer as it is an adverse effect associated with spironolactone, a potassium-sparing diuretic. Spironolactone works by blocking the aldosterone receptor in the distal convoluted tubule, leading to decreased potassium excretion and potential hyperkalemia. Hypokalemia (choice B) and hyponatremia (choice C) are not typically associated with spironolactone use. Hypernatremia (choice D) is also an unlikely finding with spironolactone.

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