Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client admitted for Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and chemotherapy. The client reports nausea, flank pain, and muscle cramps. What action by the nurse is most important?

• A. Request an order for serum electrolytes and uric acid.
• B. Increase the client’s IV infusion rate.
• C. Instruct assistive personnel to strain all urine.
• D. Administer an IV antiemetic.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The client's symptoms of nausea, flank pain, and muscle cramps are suggestive of tumor lysis syndrome (TLS), a potentially life-threatening complication of chemotherapy in which cancer cells break down rapidly, releasing large amounts of intracellular components into the bloodstream. This leads to imbalances in electrolytes (elevated potassium, phosphate, and uric acid levels, with low calcium levels), which can cause severe metabolic disturbances, including kidney damage, arrhythmias, and muscle cramps. Checking serum electrolytes and uric acid levels is crucial for diagnosing and managing TLS early, preventing further complications.

2. When educating a patient with multiple myeloma who is being discharged home, what should the nurse emphasize regarding the management of this condition?

• A. Increasing fluid intake
• B. Avoiding sunlight exposure
• C. Monitoring for signs of infection
• D. Managing pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Monitoring for signs of infection. Patients with multiple myeloma have a compromised immune system, making them more susceptible to infections. Emphasizing the importance of monitoring for signs of infection helps in early detection and prompt treatment. Increasing fluid intake (choice A) is essential for many health conditions but is not the priority in managing multiple myeloma. Avoiding sunlight exposure (choice B) may be relevant for certain skin conditions or medications but is not a key aspect of multiple myeloma management. Managing pain (choice D) is important, but in the context of multiple myeloma, monitoring for signs of infection takes precedence due to the increased risk of infections in these patients.

3. Nurse Meredith is instructing a premenopausal woman about breast self-examination. The nurse should tell the client to do her self-examination:

• A. at the end of her menstrual cycle.
• B. on the same day each month.
• C. on the 1st day of the menstrual cycle.
• D. immediately after her menstrual period.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For premenopausal women, the best time to perform a breast self-examination (BSE) is immediately after their menstrual period ends. This timing is ideal because hormonal fluctuations during the menstrual cycle can cause breast tissue to become swollen and tender, making it more difficult to detect any lumps or changes. After the menstrual period, breast tissue is usually softer and less lumpy, allowing for a more accurate assessment of any abnormalities.

4. The home health care nurse is caring for a client with cancer who is complaining of acute pain. The most appropriate determination of the client's pain should include which assessment?

• A. The client's pain rating
• B. Nonverbal cues from the client
• C. The nurse's impression of the client's pain
• D. Pain relief after appropriate nursing intervention

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: The client's pain rating. Pain assessment should primarily rely on the client's self-report for the most accurate determination of pain intensity. Nonverbal cues from the client (choice B) can provide additional information but should not replace the client's self-report. The nurse's impression of the client's pain (choice C) may be subjective and less reliable than the client's self-assessment. Pain relief after appropriate nursing intervention (choice D) is an important outcome but does not replace the initial assessment of the client's pain.

5. The nurse is caring for a client following radical neck dissection and creation of a tracheostomy. Which assessment finding would indicate an immediate need for intervention?

• A. Frequent swallowing
• B. Presence of mucous membranes
• C. Bubbling in the water-seal chamber
• D. Inspiratory stridor

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Inspiratory stridor is the correct answer as it suggests airway obstruction, a critical issue requiring immediate intervention. Frequent swallowing (choice A) is a common postoperative finding and does not indicate an immediate need for intervention. The presence of mucous membranes (choice B) is a normal finding and does not require immediate intervention. Bubbling in the water-seal chamber (choice C) of a chest tube drainage system is an expected finding and indicates proper functioning of the system, not an immediate need for intervention.

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