Nursing Elites

1. Nurse Meredith is instructing a premenopausal woman about breast self-examination. The nurse should tell the client to do her self-examination:

• A. at the end of her menstrual cycle.
• B. on the same day each month.
• C. on the 1st day of the menstrual cycle.
• D. immediately after her menstrual period.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For premenopausal women, the best time to perform a breast self-examination (BSE) is immediately after their menstrual period ends. This timing is ideal because hormonal fluctuations during the menstrual cycle can cause breast tissue to become swollen and tender, making it more difficult to detect any lumps or changes. After the menstrual period, breast tissue is usually softer and less lumpy, allowing for a more accurate assessment of any abnormalities.

2. A client has a platelet count of 9800/mm3. What action by the nurse is most appropriate?

• A. Assess the client for calf pain, warmth, and redness.
• B. Instruct the client to call for help to get out of bed.
• C. Obtain cultures as per the facility’s standing policy.
• D. Place the client on protective Isolation Precautions.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A platelet count of 9800/mm³ indicates severe thrombocytopenia, placing the client at high risk for bleeding, even with minor trauma or injury. Instructing the client to call for help before getting out of bed ensures they receive assistance with mobility, which reduces the risk of falls or injuries that could lead to serious bleeding. Preventing any activity that could result in trauma is crucial when managing clients with very low platelet counts.

3. A nurse is caring for a patient who has been diagnosed with leukemia. The nurse's most recent assessment reveals the presence of ecchymoses on the patient's sacral area and petechiae on her forearms. In addition to informing the patient's primary care provider, what action should the nurse take?

• A. Initiate measures to prevent venous thromboembolism (VTE).
• B. Check the patient's most recent platelet level.
• C. Place the patient on protective isolation.
• D. Ambulate the patient to promote circulatory function.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The patient's signs of ecchymoses and petechiae are suggestive of thrombocytopenia, which is a common complication of leukemia. Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, leading to abnormal bleeding. Checking the patient's most recent platelet level is crucial to assess the severity of thrombocytopenia and guide further interventions. Initiating measures to prevent venous thromboembolism (VTE) (Choice A) is not directly related to the patient's current signs. Placing the patient on protective isolation (Choice C) is not necessary for ecchymoses and petechiae. Ambulating the patient (Choice D) is not appropriate without addressing the underlying cause of abnormal bleeding.

4. The nurse is instructing a client on ways to reduce the risk of lymphedema after a mastectomy. Which of the following should be emphasized?

• A. Elevate the affected arm
• B. Avoid lifting heavy objects
• C. Use compression garments as prescribed
• D. Avoid wearing tight clothing

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After a mastectomy, particularly when lymph nodes are removed, patients are at increased risk for developing lymphedema, which is a buildup of lymph fluid that can cause swelling in the affected arm. Wearing tight clothing can constrict lymphatic flow and increase the risk of developing lymphedema by impeding normal lymphatic drainage. Therefore, it is crucial to advise patients to avoid tight-fitting clothing, especially around the chest and arm areas.

5. A client who has been receiving radiation therapy for bladder cancer tells the nurse that it feels as if she is voiding through the vagina. The nurse interprets that the client may be experiencing which condition?

• A. Rupture of the bladder
• B. The development of a vesicovaginal fistula
• C. Extreme stress caused by the diagnosis of cancer
• D. Altered perineal sensation as a side effect of radiation therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A vesicovaginal fistula is an abnormal connection between the bladder and the vagina, leading to the passage of urine through the vagina. This condition can occur due to various reasons, including radiation therapy. Choice A, rupture of the bladder, is incorrect because a rupture would present with more severe symptoms and is not consistent with the client's description. Choice C, extreme stress, is incorrect as it does not explain the physical symptom of voiding through the vagina. Choice D, altered perineal sensation, is incorrect as it does not involve a direct connection between the bladder and the vagina.

Similar Questions