ATI RN
ATI Oncology Questions
1. The nurse is assessing the colostomy of a client who has had an abdominal perineal resection for a bowel tumor. Which assessment finding indicates that the colostomy is beginning to function?
- A. The passage of flatus
- B. Absent bowel sounds
- C. The client’s ability to tolerate food
- D. Bloody drainage from the colostomy
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The passage of flatus (gas) from the colostomy is an early sign that the bowel is beginning to function after surgery. This indicates that peristalsis, or the movement of the intestines, has resumed and that the digestive system is actively moving gas and eventually stool through the bowel and out of the colostomy. It’s a positive sign that the bowel is recovering from the surgery and starting to work as intended.
2. What term refers to a systematic approach of obtaining, organizing, and analyzing numerical facts so that conclusions may be drawn from them?
- A. Vital statistics
- B. Statistics
- C. Morbidity
- D. Mortality
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Statistics is the term that refers to a systematic approach of obtaining, organizing, and analyzing numerical facts to draw conclusions. It involves collecting data, organizing it, and making inferences or decisions based on the analysis.
3. A patient is prescribed zanamivir (Relenza) to treat influenza B. The patient has a history of asthma. For which of the following symptoms should the nurse assess?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Pneumonia
- C. Bronchospasm
- D. Pulmonary embolism
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bronchospasm. Zanamivir (Relenza) is an inhaled medication used to treat influenza by reducing the severity and duration of symptoms. Patients with a history of asthma are at risk of bronchospasm as a potential side effect of zanamivir. Assessing for bronchospasm is crucial in this case to ensure the patient's safety and well-being. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Bradycardia, pneumonia, and pulmonary embolism are not commonly associated with zanamivir use in the treatment of influenza B, especially in a patient with a history of asthma.
4. Is it correct that eliminating sucrose from the diet leads to a significant reduction in dental caries, and that the best advice is to consume sugar in moderation and limit the frequency of sugar exposure?
- A. Both statements are true
- B. Both statements are false
- C. The first statement is true; the second is false
- D. The first statement is false; the second is true
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The first statement is incorrect because dental caries are not solely caused by sucrose. They are the result of a complex interaction of multiple factors, including the type of bacteria in the mouth, the host's diet, oral hygiene, and salivary flow. The second statement is correct as consuming sugar in moderation and limiting the frequency of sugar exposure are indeed effective strategies to prevent dental caries. Therefore, the answer is option D: The first statement is false; the second is true.
5. A client is prescribed Amlodipine. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse monitor?
- A. Tachycardia
- B. Peripheral edema
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypertension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine, a calcium channel blocker, can lead to peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should assess the client for swelling in the lower extremities, a common manifestation of this side effect. Monitoring for peripheral edema is crucial to ensure early detection and appropriate management. Tachycardia (Choice A) is not a common adverse effect of Amlodipine. Hyperglycemia (Choice C) is not typically associated with Amlodipine use. Hypertension (Choice D) is the condition for which Amlodipine is prescribed to treat, not an adverse effect of the medication.
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