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1. A client is being cared for by a nurse 2 hours after admission. The client has an SaO2 of 91%, exhibits audible wheezes, and is using accessory muscles when breathing. Which of the following classes of medication should the nurse expect to administer?
- A. Antibiotic
- B. Beta-blocker
- C. Antiviral
- D. Beta2 agonist
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client's presentation with an SaO2 of 91%, audible wheezes, and use of accessory muscles indicates respiratory distress, likely due to bronchoconstriction. Beta2 agonists are the appropriate class of medications to administer in this situation as they act as bronchodilators, helping to relieve the bronchoconstriction and improve airflow to the lungs. Antibiotics, beta-blockers, and antivirals are not indicated for this client's respiratory distress symptoms.
2. Which of the following interventions promotes patient safety?
- A. Assess the patient’s ability to ambulate and transfer from a bed to a chair
- B. Demonstrate the signal system to the patient
- C. Check to see that the patient is wearing their identification band
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: All the listed interventions are essential for promoting patient safety. Assessing the patient’s ability to ambulate and transfer helps prevent falls, demonstrating the signal system ensures effective communication in emergencies, and checking the patient's identification band aids in accurate identification and treatment. By combining these interventions, healthcare providers can enhance patient safety and quality of care.
3. A healthcare provider is caring for a group of clients. Which of the following clients is not at risk for pulmonary embolism?
- A. A client who has a BMI of 30
- B. A female client who is postmenopausal
- C. A client who has a fractured femur
- D. A client who has chronic atrial fibrillation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Postmenopausal status is not a significant risk factor for pulmonary embolism. Risk factors for pulmonary embolism include obesity (BMI of 30 or higher), immobility such as having a fractured femur, and conditions like chronic atrial fibrillation that increase the risk of blood clot formation. While postmenopausal status may be associated with other health risks, it is not directly linked to an increased risk of pulmonary embolism.
4. The healthcare professional is preparing to take vital signs in an alert client admitted to the hospital with dehydration secondary to vomiting and diarrhea. What is the best method used to assess the client’s temperature?
- A. Oral
- B. Axillary
- C. Radial
- D. Heat-sensitive tape
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most accurate method for assessing temperature in an alert client is the oral method. It provides a more reliable reflection of the body's core temperature compared to axillary or radial methods. In cases of dehydration, it is important to get an accurate temperature reading to monitor the client's condition closely. Axillary temperature may be affected by environmental factors, while radial temperature measurement is not a standard method for assessing core body temperature. Heat-sensitive tape is not a recognized method for assessing body temperature in clinical practice.
5. The healthcare provider orders the administration of an ampicillin capsule TID p.o. The healthcare provider should give the medication...
- A. Three times a day orally
- B. Three times a day after meals
- C. Two times a day by mouth
- D. Two times a day before meals
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In medical abbreviations, 'TID' stands for 'ter in die,' which means three times a day, and 'p.o.' stands for 'per os,' which means orally. Therefore, the correct administration schedule for the ampicillin capsule is three times a day orally. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not align with the prescribed frequency or route of administration specified in the order.
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