Nursing Elites

1. A client is being cared for by a nurse 2 hours after admission. The client has an SaO2 of 91%, exhibits audible wheezes, and is using accessory muscles when breathing. Which of the following classes of medication should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Antibiotic
• B. Beta-blocker
• C. Antiviral
• D. Beta2 agonist

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's presentation with an SaO2 of 91%, audible wheezes, and use of accessory muscles indicates respiratory distress, likely due to bronchoconstriction. Beta2 agonists are the appropriate class of medications to administer in this situation as they act as bronchodilators, helping to relieve the bronchoconstriction and improve airflow to the lungs. Antibiotics, beta-blockers, and antivirals are not indicated for this client's respiratory distress symptoms.

2. The healthcare professional is preparing to take vital signs in an alert client admitted to the hospital with dehydration secondary to vomiting and diarrhea. What is the best method used to assess the client’s temperature?

• A. Oral
• B. Axillary
• C. Radial
• D. Heat-sensitive tape

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most accurate method for assessing temperature in an alert client is the oral method. It provides a more reliable reflection of the body's core temperature compared to axillary or radial methods. In cases of dehydration, it is important to get an accurate temperature reading to monitor the client's condition closely. Axillary temperature may be affected by environmental factors, while radial temperature measurement is not a standard method for assessing core body temperature. Heat-sensitive tape is not a recognized method for assessing body temperature in clinical practice.

3. A caregiver is caring for a 5-month-old infant who has manifestations of severe dehydration and a prescription for parenteral fluid therapy. The caregiver asks, 'What are the indications that my baby needs an IV?' Which of the following responses should the caregiver make?

• A. Your baby needs an IV because she is not producing any tears
• B. Your baby needs an IV because her fontanels are bulging
• C. Your baby needs an IV because she is breathing slower than normal
• D. Your baby needs an IV because her heart rate is decreasing

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'Your baby needs an IV because she is not producing any tears.' In infants, the inability to produce tears is a sign of severe dehydration. This is a crucial indication for the need for intravenous (IV) fluid therapy to rehydrate the infant. While the other options may also be symptoms of dehydration, the absence of tears is a more direct and specific indicator requiring immediate attention and intervention.

4. Which of the following white blood cell (WBC) counts clearly indicates leukocytosis?

• A. 4,500/mm³
• B. 7,000/mm³
• C. 10,000/mm³
• D. 25,000/mm³

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Leukocytosis is defined as an increase in the total white blood cell count. A normal WBC count typically ranges from 4,500 to 10,000/mm³. A WBC count of 25,000/mm³, as indicated in choice D, is significantly higher than the normal range and clearly indicates leukocytosis.

5. A client is experiencing preterm contractions and dehydration. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?

• A. Dehydration is treated with calcium supplements.
• B. Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor.
• C. Dehydration is associated with gastroesophageal reflux.
• D. Dehydration is caused by decreased hemoglobin and hematocrit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Dehydration can lead to an imbalance in electrolytes and cause uterine irritability, potentially leading to preterm contractions. It is essential for the nurse to educate the client on the importance of adequate hydration to reduce the risk of preterm labor. The statement 'Dehydration can increase the risk of preterm labor' directly addresses the client's condition and provides relevant information for their understanding and management of the situation.

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