Nursing Elites

1. A client is being cared for by a nurse 2 hours after admission. The client has an SaO2 of 91%, exhibits audible wheezes, and is using accessory muscles when breathing. Which of the following classes of medication should the nurse expect to administer?

• A. Antibiotic
• B. Beta-blocker
• C. Antiviral
• D. Beta2 agonist

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client's presentation with an SaO2 of 91%, audible wheezes, and use of accessory muscles indicates respiratory distress, likely due to bronchoconstriction. Beta2 agonists are the appropriate class of medications to administer in this situation as they act as bronchodilators, helping to relieve the bronchoconstriction and improve airflow to the lungs. Antibiotics, beta-blockers, and antivirals are not indicated for this client's respiratory distress symptoms.

2. A patient presents with an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) characterized by shortness of breath, orthopnea, thick, tenacious secretions, and a dry hacking cough. An appropriate nursing diagnosis would be:

• A. Ineffective airway clearance related to thick, tenacious secretions.
• B. Ineffective airway clearance related to dry, hacking cough.
• C. Ineffective individual coping with COPD.
• D. Pain related to immobilization of affected leg.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The patient's symptoms of shortness of breath, orthopnea, thick, tenacious secretions, and a dry hacking cough all point towards a potential airway clearance issue. This makes option A, 'Ineffective airway clearance related to thick, tenacious secretions,' the most appropriate nursing diagnosis. It directly addresses the thick secretions and suggests a potential cause of the breathing difficulty the patient is experiencing.

3. Which of the following measures is not recommended to prevent pressure ulcers?

• A. Massaging the reddened area with lotion
• B. Using a water or air mattress
• C. Adhering to a schedule for positioning and turning
• D. Providing meticulous skin care

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Massaging a reddened area can cause further tissue damage by increasing pressure on already compromised skin. The other options, such as using specialized mattresses, adhering to repositioning schedules, and maintaining good skin care, are all recommended strategies to prevent pressure ulcers by reducing pressure and friction on vulnerable areas of the skin.

4. A client is being assessed by a nurse who is 30 minutes postoperative following an arterial thrombectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report?

• A. Chest pain
• B. Muscle spasms
• C. Cool, moist skin
• D. Incisional pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Chest pain is a critical finding postoperatively, especially after an arterial thrombectomy, as it could indicate complications like myocardial infarction or pulmonary embolism. It requires immediate attention and further evaluation. Muscle spasms, cool moist skin, and incisional pain are important to assess but not as urgent as chest pain in this scenario.

5. What is the primary purpose of a platelet count?

• A. Assessing clot formation potential
• B. Assessing bleeding risk
• C. Detecting antigen-antibody response
• D. Identifying cardiac enzymes presence

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A platelet count is primarily used to assess the risk of bleeding. Platelets play a crucial role in blood clotting, so a low platelet count can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Monitoring platelet levels helps healthcare providers evaluate a patient's ability to form clots and manage bleeding.

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