ATI RN
ATI Fundamentals Proctored Exam 2024
1. The physician orders 10 gr of aspirin for a patient. The equivalent dose in milligrams is:
- A. 0.6 mg
- B. 10 mg
- C. 60 mg
- D. 600 mg
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To convert grains (gr) to milligrams (mg), you multiply by 60. Therefore, 10 gr of aspirin is equal to 600 mg (10 gr x 60 = 600 mg). So, the correct answer is 600 mg.
2. What is the transparent membrane that focuses the light entering the eyes onto the retina?
- A. Lens
- B. Sclera
- C. Cornea
- D. Pupils
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is the lens. The lens is a transparent structure in the eye that helps to focus light onto the retina, which is essential for clear vision. The cornea and sclera are also important parts of the eye, but the lens specifically plays a crucial role in focusing light onto the retina. The sclera is the white outer layer of the eye that helps maintain the shape of the eye, while the cornea is the clear outer covering of the eye that helps to refract light into the eye.
3. A healthcare professional is assessing a client following a gunshot wound to the chest. For which of the following findings should the healthcare professional not monitor to detect a pneumothorax?
- A. Tachypnea
- B. Deviation of the trachea
- C. Bradycardia
- D. Pleuritic pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Bradycardia, which is a slow heart rate, is not typically associated with a pneumothorax. In a pneumothorax, the presence of air in the pleural space can lead to lung collapse, causing symptoms such as tachypnea (rapid breathing), deviation of the trachea, and pleuritic pain. Monitoring for bradycardia may not be as relevant in this context as it is not a typical indicator of a pneumothorax.
4. The physician orders a maintenance dose of 5,000 units of subcutaneous heparin (an anticoagulant) daily. Nursing responsibilities for Mrs. Mitchell now include:
- A. Reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time.
- B. Reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician
- C. Assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. When a physician orders a maintenance dose of subcutaneous heparin, nursing responsibilities include reviewing daily activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) and prothrombin time to monitor the patient's coagulation status, reporting an APTT above 45 seconds to the physician as it may indicate a risk of bleeding, and assessing the patient for signs and symptoms of frank and occult bleeding, which are potential adverse effects of anticoagulant therapy. Therefore, all the options listed are essential nursing responsibilities when a patient is on subcutaneous heparin therapy.
5. What is the best position for examining the rectum?
- A. Prone
- B. Sim's
- C. Knee-chest
- D. Lithotomy
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The knee-chest position is the most optimal position for examining the rectum. In this position, the patient kneels on the examination table with their chest resting on it, creating a straight line from the head to the lower back. This position allows for easier access and visualization of the rectal area, making it the preferred choice for rectal examinations. Prone position (choice A) is lying face down and is not ideal for rectal exams as it does not provide good access. Sim's position (choice B) is lying on the left side with the right knee and thigh flexed, also not ideal for rectal exams. Lithotomy position (choice D) is lying on the back with legs flexed and feet in stirrups, primarily used for gynecological exams and surgery, not for rectal examinations.
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