Nursing Elites

1. The physician orders 10 gr of aspirin for a patient. The equivalent dose in milligrams is:

• A. 0.6 mg
• B. 10 mg
• C. 60 mg
• D. 600 mg

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To convert grains (gr) to milligrams (mg), you multiply by 60. Therefore, 10 gr of aspirin is equal to 600 mg (10 gr x 60 = 600 mg). So, the correct answer is 600 mg.

2. A healthcare professional is planning care for a client following the insertion of a chest tube and drainage system. Which of the following should NOT be included in the plan of care?

• A. Encourage the client to cough every 2 hours.
• B. Check for continuous bubbling in the suction chamber.
• C. Strip the drainage tubing every 4 hours.
• D. Obtain a chest x-ray

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Stripping the drainage tubing is an outdated practice and can cause complications. Encouraging the client to cough helps with lung expansion, checking for continuous bubbling ensures proper functioning of the chest tube system, and obtaining a chest x-ray helps to assess the position of the chest tube and re-expansion of the lung. Therefore, stripping the drainage tubing every 4 hours should not be included in the plan of care.

3. A client has global aphasia affecting both receptive and expressive language abilities. Which intervention should NOT be included in the client's care plan?

• A. Speak to the client at a slower rate.
• B. Assist the client in using flash cards with pictures.
• C. Speak to the client in a loud voice.
• D. Give instructions one step at a time.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Individuals with global aphasia have difficulty understanding and expressing language. Speaking loudly may not improve comprehension and can be perceived as aggressive. Therefore, it is important not to speak loudly to a client with global aphasia. Speaking at a slower rate, using visual aids like flash cards, and breaking down instructions into simple steps can facilitate communication and understanding for the client.

4. A client with active tuberculosis is prescribed isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I can substitute one medication for another if I run out because they all fight infection.
• B. I will wash my hands each time I cough.
• C. I am glad I don't have to have any more sputum specimens.
• D. I don't need to worry about where I go once I start taking my medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct statement indicating understanding of tuberculosis medication regimen is 'I will wash my hands each time I cough.' This statement shows knowledge of infection control practices to prevent the spread of tuberculosis. Washing hands after coughing helps in reducing the transmission of the disease to others. The other options are incorrect. Option A is incorrect as each medication in the regimen has a specific role, and substituting one for another can compromise the effectiveness of treatment. Option C is incorrect as obtaining sputum specimens is essential for monitoring treatment response. Option D is incorrect as the client should still adhere to infection control measures and avoid exposing others to tuberculosis.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has a pulmonary embolism. Which of the following information should the healthcare professional not expect to find?

• A. Bradypnea
• B. Pleural friction rub
• C. Petechiae
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with a pulmonary embolism, bradypnea, which is abnormally slow breathing, is not an expected finding. Pulmonary embolism typically presents with tachypnea (rapid breathing) due to the body's compensatory mechanism to increase oxygen levels. Pleural friction rub, petechiae, and tachycardia are commonly associated with a pulmonary embolism due to the impaired oxygenation and increased workload on the heart. Therefore, the healthcare professional should not expect to find bradypnea during the assessment of a client with a pulmonary embolism.

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