Nursing Elites

1. During an assessment, which manifestation should a healthcare provider expect in an infant with pyloric stenosis?

• A. Bile-stained vomitus
• B. Distended abdomen
• C. Olive-shaped mass in the upper abdomen
• D. Painless, swollen joints

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pyloric stenosis in infants typically presents with an olive-shaped mass in the upper abdomen due to hypertrophy of the pyloric muscle. This mass can often be palpated during an assessment and is a key characteristic of this condition. Bile-stained vomitus may be seen in conditions such as intestinal obstruction; a distended abdomen can be a nonspecific sign of various conditions, and painless, swollen joints are not typically associated with pyloric stenosis.

2. The nurse is preparing to administer a daily dose of digoxin. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Analyze HR and rhythm
• B. Assess for Homan’s sign
• C. Check BP
• D. Palpate the pedal pulses

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Before giving digoxin, the nurse will assess the HR and rhythm. The dosage will be held and the prescriber notified if the HR is below 60 bpm or if the cardiac rhythm has changes. Digoxin can cause bradycardia and electrical changes in the heart.

3. A parent of a child with oral candidiasis is being taught by a nurse. Which statement by the parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will boil the nipples and pacifiers for 20 minutes each day.
• B. I will stop the medication as soon as the spots disappear.
• C. I will apply an over-the-counter steroid cream to the spots.
• D. I will mix the medication in my child's bottle.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Boiling the nipples and pacifiers for 20 minutes each day is an appropriate measure to prevent reinfection of oral candidiasis. This practice helps eliminate the Candida fungus from these items, reducing the risk of the child getting reinfected. It is crucial for the parent to follow this hygienic practice consistently to ensure the child's recovery and prevent the spread of the infection.

4. A nurse in an emergency department is caring for a school-age child who is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction. Which of the following is the priority action by the nurse?

• A. Elevate the head of the child's bed
• B. Insert a large-bore IV catheter for the child
• C. Determine the allergen that caused the child's reaction
• D. Administer IM epinephrine to the child

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the management of anaphylaxis, the priority action for the nurse is to administer IM epinephrine to the child. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis as it helps reverse the severe manifestations of the reaction by constricting blood vessels, relaxing airway muscles, and decreasing hives and swelling. Elevating the head of the child's bed may be beneficial for respiratory distress but is not the priority over administering epinephrine. Inserting a large-bore IV catheter may be necessary for fluid resuscitation but is not the initial priority. Identifying the allergen is important for prevention and future management but is not the immediate action needed in the acute phase of an anaphylactic reaction.

5. A post-op patient has an epidural infusion of morphine sulfate. The patient’s respiratory rate declines to 8 breaths/minute. Which medication would the nurse anticipate administering?

• A. Naloxone (Narcan)
• B. Acetylcysteine (Mucomyst)
• C. Methyprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)
• D. Protamine Sulfate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Naloxone is a narcotic antagonist that can reverse the effects, both adverse and therapeutic, of opioid narcotic analgesics.

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