ATI RN
ATI Pediatrics Proctored Exam 2023
1. The healthcare provider is caring for a 9-month-old infant who just returned from the postanesthesia care unit (PACU) after a shunt placement for hydrocephalus. Which healthcare provider prescription should the nurse question?
- A. Vital signs and neurologic checks hourly
- B. Small, frequent formula feedings
- C. Elevate the head of the bed
- D. Daily head circumference measurements
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed in a child with hydrocephalus can potentially increase intracranial pressure. This can be counterproductive and may lead to complications after shunt placement surgery. Keeping the head of the bed flat or slightly elevated is often recommended to optimize cerebral perfusion and reduce the risk of increased intracranial pressure.
2. The nurse suspects that a child has ingested some type of poison. What clinical manifestation would be most suggestive that the poison was a corrosive product?
- A. Tinnitus
- B. Disorientation
- C. Stupor, lethargy, and coma
- D. Edema of the lips, tongue, and pharynx
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Edema of the lips, tongue, and pharynx is a characteristic sign of corrosive poisoning, indicating damage to mucous membranes from ingestion of a caustic substance. Other symptoms may vary depending on the poison but are not as specific to corrosive ingestion.
3. Why should the nitrate patch be off for 8 hours per day?
- A. “There is no reason to take the patch off each day.”
- B. “The patch can be addictive; leaving it off reduces the addiction.”
- C. “You should only leave the patch off for 15 minutes.”
- D. “Leaving the patch off for 8 hours per day helps to delay the development of tolerance.”
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Removing the nitrate patch for 8 hours each day is essential to prevent the body from developing tolerance to the medication. By allowing the body to have a drug-free period, the effectiveness of the medication is maintained over time. This practice helps in ensuring that the nitrate patch continues to provide its intended therapeutic effects without diminishing its efficacy. Therefore, it is important for the client to adhere to the prescribed schedule of removing the patch for 8 hours daily to optimize the treatment outcomes.
4. A healthcare professional is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN). Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?
- A. Blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL
- B. Serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L
- C. Serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L
- D. Platelet count of 250,000/mm³
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, a complication that should be reported in clients receiving TPN. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac and neuromuscular complications. The other options are within normal ranges and do not indicate immediate concerns for a client receiving TPN. A blood glucose level of 130 mg/dL, serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L, and platelet count of 250,000/mm³ are all considered normal values and do not require immediate intervention.
5. What physiological role does phosphorus play in the body?
- A. Blood clotting, transmission of nerve impulses, muscle contraction, and relaxation
- B. Calcium homeostasis, structural integrity of heart muscle
- C. No known metabolic function, caries-preventing properties
- D. ATP energy release; metabolism of fats, carbohydrates, proteins; regulates acid-base balance
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. Phosphorus plays a crucial role in ATP energy release, the metabolism of fats, carbohydrates, and proteins, and regulation of acid-base balance. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Phosphorus is not directly involved in blood clotting, transmission of nerve impulses, muscle contraction, or calcium homeostasis. It also has known metabolic functions and is not associated with caries prevention.
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