ATI RN
ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam
1. A healthcare provider is assessing an infant who has hydrocephalus and is 6 hours postoperative following placement of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt. Which of the following findings should the provider report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Decreased urine output
- B. Temperature of 37.5 degrees C (99.5 degrees F)
- C. Heart rate 130/min
- D. Leakage of cerebrospinal fluid
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The provider should report the leakage of cerebrospinal fluid to the healthcare provider as it may indicate shunt malfunction or infection, requiring immediate attention to prevent complications. Decreased urine output, a temperature of 37.5 degrees C, and a heart rate of 130/min are common postoperative findings and may not be directly related to shunt function. While these findings should still be monitored, they do not require immediate reporting like cerebrospinal fluid leakage.
2. A nurse administers naloxone (Narcan) to a post-op patient experiencing respiratory sedation. What undesirable effect would the nurse anticipate after giving this medication?
- A. Drowsiness
- B. Tics and tremors
- C. Increased Pain
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Naloxone reverses the effects of narcotics. Although the patient’s respiratory status will improve after administration of naloxone, the pain will be more acute.
3. A child is being assessed for possible appendicitis with perforation. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Hyperactive bowel sounds
- B. Abdominal distension
- C. Hypoactive bowel sounds
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a child with appendicitis and possible perforation, the nurse should expect bradycardia due to peritoneal irritation. Bradycardia is a common response to peritoneal inflammation or infection, indicating a possible serious complication. Hyperactive bowel sounds, abdominal distension, and hypoactive bowel sounds are more commonly associated with other gastrointestinal conditions and are less likely to be present in a child with appendicitis and perforation. Therefore, the correct answer is bradycardia (D) as it aligns with the expected physiological response in this scenario.
4. The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system plays an important role in maintaining blood pressure. Which compound in this system is most powerful at raising blood pressure?
- A. Angiotensin I
- B. Angiotensin II
- C. Angiotensin III
- D. Renin
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Angiotensin II is the most potent compound in the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system for raising blood pressure. It acts as a powerful vasoconstrictor, leading to increased systemic vascular resistance. Angiotensin II is formed from angiotensin I through the action of the angiotensin-converting enzyme. While renin initiates the cascade by converting angiotensinogen to angiotensin I, it is angiotensin II that exerts the strongest pressor effect.
5. A patient is receiving glucocorticoids for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis. The patient complains of having a headache. Which ordered medication should the nurse administer?
- A. Aspirin
- B. Acetaminophen
- C. Ibuprofen
- D. Naproxen Sodium (Aleve)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a patient is already receiving glucocorticoids for rheumatoid arthritis and complains of a headache, it is essential to consider the potential interactions and side effects of additional medications. Aspirin and NSAIDs like ibuprofen and naproxen sodium can increase the risk of gastrointestinal irritation and ulceration when used concurrently with glucocorticoids. Acetaminophen is a safer choice in this scenario for managing the patient's headache without exacerbating the gastrointestinal issues associated with the use of glucocorticoids. Acetaminophen does not have the same gastrointestinal side effects as aspirin, ibuprofen, or naproxen sodium, making it the most appropriate option for headache relief in this case.
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