Nursing Elites

1. An adolescent client reports recurrent abdominal pain with diarrhea and bloody stools. Which type of inflammatory bowel disease does the nurse suspect based on these data?

• A. Necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)
• B. Ulcerative colitis (UC)
• C. Crohn's disease
• D. Appendicitis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ulcerative colitis is a type of inflammatory bowel disease characterized by recurrent abdominal pain, diarrhea, and bloody stools. The symptoms described align with the clinical presentation of ulcerative colitis, making it the most likely diagnosis in this scenario. Necrotizing enterocolitis primarily affects premature infants, Crohn's disease typically presents with non-bloody diarrhea, and appendicitis is characterized by right lower quadrant abdominal pain. Therefore, based on the symptoms provided, ulcerative colitis is the most appropriate suspicion.

2. The healthcare professional is completing the intake and output record for a child admitted for fluid volume deficit. The child has had the following intake and output during the shift: 4 oz of Pedialyte, One-half of an 8-oz cup of clear orange Jell-O, Two graham crackers, 200 mL of D5 1/2 sodium chloride IV. Output: 345 mL of urine, 50 mL of loose stool. How many milliliters should the healthcare professional document as the client's total intake? Give the numerical answer only. Do not include any units of measurement.

• A. 440
• B. 400
• C. 410
• D. 450

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The total intake is 440 mL (4 oz of Pedialyte = 120 mL, half of an 8 oz cup of Jell-O = 120 mL, and 200 mL of IV fluids). The graham crackers are not counted as intake. Therefore, the correct answer is 440. Choice B (400) is incorrect because it does not account for the intake of Jell-O. Choice C (410) is incorrect as it does not include the Pedialyte intake. Choice D (450) is incorrect because it overestimates the total intake by including the graham crackers.

3. A patient is 1 hour postoperative following an open reduction internal fixation of the left tibia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Assess neurovascular status of the extremities every 4 hours
• B. Monitor the patient's pain level every 8 hours
• C. Assist the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours
• D. Keep the patient's left leg elevated on two pillows

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take 1 hour postoperative following an open reduction internal fixation of the left tibia is to assess neurovascular status of the extremities every 4 hours. This frequent assessment is crucial to monitor for any signs of complications such as impaired circulation or nerve damage. Monitoring every 4 hours allows for early detection of any issues, enabling timely intervention and prevention of potential complications. Monitoring the patient's pain level every 8 hours (choice B) is not as immediate or essential for postoperative care. Assisting the patient to the bathroom every 2 hours (choice C) may not be necessary if the patient is not ambulatory yet. Keeping the patient's left leg elevated on two pillows (choice D) can be beneficial but is not the priority in the immediate postoperative period compared to assessing neurovascular status.

4. A patient in the emergency department reports taking sildenafil (Viagra) and nitroglycerin 1 hr before sexual activity. Which finding should the nurse immediately report to the physician?

• A. WBC of 3200 cells/mm³
• B. RR of 26 breaths/min
• C. Temp of 38°C
• D. BP of 70/50

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: BP of 70/50. When sildenafil (Viagra) is taken with nitroglycerin, it can cause severe hypotension that is unresponsive to treatment. The combination of these medications can lead to a dangerous drop in blood pressure. It is crucial to immediately report hypotension in this scenario as it poses a significant risk to the patient's life. It is recommended to allow at least 24 hours to elapse between the last dose of sildenafil and nitroglycerin to prevent such adverse effects. The other vital signs and lab values may be abnormal but do not have the immediate life-threatening implications that severe hypotension does in this context.

5. A patient taking isotretinoin (Accutane) for acne vulgaris. Which statement indicates that the patient teaching has been effective?

• A. I should use a reliable form of birth control.
• B. I will stop taking the drug if my skin is dry.
• C. It is important to increase intake of vitamin A.
• D. I do not need to use sunblock while taking Accutane.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Isotretinoin is highly teratogenic, which means it can cause birth defects. Therefore, it is crucial for patients, especially females of childbearing potential, to use effective forms of birth control to prevent pregnancy while taking this medication. This is a key component of patient teaching to ensure the safe use of isotretinoin. Choice B is incorrect because discontinuing isotretinoin abruptly can lead to a flare-up of acne. Choice C is incorrect because increasing vitamin A intake can be harmful due to the risk of hypervitaminosis A. Choice D is incorrect because isotretinoin makes the skin more sensitive to sunlight, so sunblock is essential to prevent sunburn and skin damage.

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