ATI RN
ATI Pediatric Proctored Exam 2023
1. The healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to the parent of a school-age child who has celiac disease. The healthcare provider should recommend that the parent offer which of the following foods to the child?
- A. Wheat bread
- B. Vanilla malt
- C. Barley soup
- D. Rice pudding
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Celiac disease requires a lifelong gluten-free diet. Foods containing gluten such as wheat, barley, and rye should be avoided. Rice pudding is a safe option as it does not contain gluten, making it a suitable choice for a child with celiac disease.
2. The caregiver is teaching a parent of a young child with a newly diagnosed seizure disorder. The child is prescribed valproic acid (Depakote) for control of seizures. Which parental statement indicates the need for further education?
- A. I will not use carbonated beverages to dilute his medication.
- B. I will give his medication with food to minimize gastrointestinal upset.
- C. I will not let him chew his tablet.
- D. I will bring him to the physician's office for regular blood work to check his blood levels.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Valproic acid should be administered with food to reduce the risk of gastrointestinal upset. Giving it on an empty stomach may increase the likelihood of adverse effects. The other statements are correct: A - Carbonated beverages should not be used to dilute the medication, C - The tablet should not be chewed, and D - Regular blood work is necessary to monitor valproic acid levels and potential side effects.
3. At what age may an infant close their eyes to bright lights and show improved head control?
- A. 30-33 weeks after conception
- B. 34-36 weeks after conception
- C. Less than 30 weeks after conception
- D. 37-40 weeks after conception
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Around 30-33 weeks after conception, infants usually start closing their eyes in response to bright lights and exhibit enhanced head control. This developmental milestone indicates progress in their visual and motor abilities, reflecting the maturation of their neurological system. As preterm infants continue to grow and develop, they gradually acquire these skills, showcasing the natural progression of their sensory and motor functions.
4. For which patient diagnosis would a prescription for nifedipine be least appropriate?
- A. Angina Pectoris
- B. Essential HTN
- C. Atrial Fibrillation
- D. Vasospastic Angina
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Nifedipine primarily acts as a calcium channel blocker, exerting its effects on vascular smooth muscle. It is not effective for treating dysrhythmias like Atrial Fibrillation, which involve abnormalities in the heart's electrical system. Nifedipine is commonly prescribed for conditions such as angina pectoris, essential hypertension, and vasospastic angina due to its vasodilatory and anti-anginal properties. Choices A, B, and D are more appropriate as nifedipine can help in managing angina pectoris, hypertension, and vasospastic angina by reducing myocardial oxygen demand and dilating coronary arteries.
5. A child is being assessed for possible appendicitis with perforation. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Hyperactive bowel sounds
- B. Abdominal distension
- C. Hypoactive bowel sounds
- D. Bradycardia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a child with appendicitis and possible perforation, the nurse should expect bradycardia due to peritoneal irritation. Bradycardia is a common response to peritoneal inflammation or infection, indicating a possible serious complication. Hyperactive bowel sounds, abdominal distension, and hypoactive bowel sounds are more commonly associated with other gastrointestinal conditions and are less likely to be present in a child with appendicitis and perforation. Therefore, the correct answer is bradycardia (D) as it aligns with the expected physiological response in this scenario.
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