Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is providing dietary teaching to the parent of a school-age child who has celiac disease. The healthcare provider should recommend that the parent offer which of the following foods to the child?

• A. Wheat bread
• B. Vanilla malt
• C. Barley soup
• D. Rice pudding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Celiac disease requires a lifelong gluten-free diet. Foods containing gluten such as wheat, barley, and rye should be avoided. Rice pudding is a safe option as it does not contain gluten, making it a suitable choice for a child with celiac disease.

2. Which type of food is the most difficult to swallow?

• A. Raw Vegetables
• B. Strained Fruit
• C. Chopped Meat
• D. Mashed Vegetables

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Chopped meat is the most difficult to swallow as it requires thorough chewing and coordination to avoid swallowing hazards, making it more challenging compared to raw vegetables, strained fruit, and mashed vegetables.

3. A nurse is planning care for a school-age child who has thrombocytopenia. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan?

• A. Administer aspirin as needed for fever.
• B. Avoid venipunctures whenever possible.
• C. Encourage the child to participate in contact sports.
• D. Administer ibuprofen for pain.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid venipunctures whenever possible.' Thrombocytopenia is a condition characterized by a low platelet count, which can lead to an increased risk of bleeding. Venipunctures can cause bleeding in these patients; therefore, they should be avoided whenever possible. Choice A is incorrect because aspirin should be avoided in patients with thrombocytopenia as it can further increase the risk of bleeding due to its antiplatelet effects. Choice C is incorrect because participating in contact sports can also increase the risk of injury and bleeding in a child with thrombocytopenia. Choice D is incorrect as ibuprofen, like aspirin, can also increase the risk of bleeding and should be avoided in these patients.

4. Which principle does not follow neuromaturational theory?

• A. The sequence and rate of motor development are consistent among infants
• B. Movement emerges from an interaction and cooperation of many systems
• C. Movement progresses from primitive reflexes to voluntary control
• D. Low-level skills are prerequisites for certain high-level skills

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Neuromaturational theory emphasizes that motor development progresses in a predictable sequence and rate, starting from primitive reflexes to voluntary control. It also states that low-level skills are foundational for higher-level skills. However, the theory does not support the idea that movement solely emerges from an interaction and cooperation of many systems, as it focuses more on the hierarchical development of motor skills.

5. When educating a patient about sildenafil (Viagra), which adverse effect should be a priority for the patient to report to his prescriber?

• A. Flushing
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Hearing loss
• D. Dyspepsia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Hearing loss.' In rare cases, Viagra has been associated with sudden hearing loss, typically in one ear, which can be partial or complete. Any onset of hearing problems while using Viagra should be reported promptly to the prescriber. It is recommended to discontinue the medication if it is used for erectile dysfunction. 'Flushing,' 'Diarrhea,' and 'Dyspepsia' are known adverse effects of Viagra but are generally less serious compared to hearing loss.

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