Nursing Elites

1. Which assessment finding for a 4-month-old infant would require further action by the nurse?

• A. The posterior fontanel is open.
• B. The infant has good head control when held upright.
• C. The infant is able to roll only from abdomen to back.
• D. The anterior fontanel is open and soft.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. The posterior fontanel should be closed by 4 months of age. An open posterior fontanel at this age may indicate a delay in normal closure, which could be a cause for concern and require further evaluation by the healthcare provider to ensure proper development and growth. Choices B, C, and D are typical developmental milestones for a 4-month-old infant and do not raise immediate concerns requiring further action by the nurse.

2. Which factor will not promote play and playfulness in children?

• A. Novel toys
• B. Familiar peers
• C. Comfortable atmosphere
• D. Directive adults

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Directive adults can inhibit spontaneous play and creativity, which are essential for fostering playfulness in children. When adults are too directive, children may feel constrained and less likely to engage in imaginative and free play. Encouraging independence and allowing children to explore and create their play scenarios can enhance playfulness and creativity.

3. Which strategy is most likely to promote positive behavior in children?

• A. Providing flexible instructions with no consequences
• B. Limiting opportunities until the child performs adequately
• C. Improving the child's competence and creating a positive environment
• D. Setting strict rules with punishments for misbehavior

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Improving the child's competence and creating a positive environment is the most effective strategy to promote positive behavior in children. This approach focuses on enhancing the child's skills and abilities while fostering a supportive and encouraging atmosphere. By empowering the child and surrounding them with positivity, they are more likely to exhibit positive behaviors as they feel competent, valued, and motivated. This strategy emphasizes support and reinforcement over punitive measures, leading to long-lasting behavioral improvements.

4. Which standardized test would be most appropriate for assessing the motor development of a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic?

• A. Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2)
• B. Bruininks-Oseretsky Test of Motor Proficiency (BOT-2)
• C. Pediatric Evaluation of Disability Index (PEDI)
• D. School Assessment of Motor and Process Skills (School-AMPS)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Peabody Developmental Motor Scale (PDMS-2) is specifically designed to assess the motor development of infants and young children, making it the most appropriate choice for evaluating a 2-month-old infant in a high-risk clinic setting.

5. The patient is receiving a heparin infusion for the treatment of pulmonary embolism. Which assessment finding is most likely related to an adverse effect of heparin?

• A. HR of 60 bpm
• B. BP of 160/88
• C. Discolored urine
• D. Inspiratory wheezing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The primary and most serious adverse effect of heparin is bleeding. However, discolored urine can indicate bleeding into the urinary tract, which is a potential adverse effect of heparin therapy. While changes in heart rate (HR) and blood pressure (BP) can occur due to various reasons, discolored urine specifically points towards a potential adverse effect related to heparin therapy.

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