ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN Quizlet
1. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a history of falls. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Keep all four side rails up.
- B. Ensure the client's bed is in the lowest position.
- C. Use nonskid footwear while ambulating.
- D. Place a bedside commode close to the client's bed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Use nonskid footwear while ambulating.' This action is crucial in preventing falls in clients with a history of falls as it provides better traction and stability while walking. Choice A, 'Keep all four side rails up,' is not recommended as it can lead to client restraint and is not a fall prevention strategy. Choice B, 'Ensure the client's bed is in the lowest position,' is important for preventing injuries from falls out of bed but does not directly address fall prevention during ambulation. Choice D, 'Place a bedside commode close to the client's bed,' is a good practice for toileting safety but does not specifically address preventing falls while walking.
2. A nurse is planning to teach a group of clients about preventing low back pain. Which of the following information should the nurse include?
- A. Wear low-heeled shoes.
- B. Elevate the legs while sitting.
- C. Engage in prolonged sitting to rest the back muscles.
- D. Sleep on a soft mattress to prevent strain on the back.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Wear low-heeled shoes.' Wearing low-heeled shoes helps prevent back strain by promoting proper posture. High heels can cause an imbalance in the body's alignment, leading to increased stress on the lower back. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Elevating the legs while sitting can help with circulation but does not directly prevent low back pain. Engaging in prolonged sitting can actually contribute to low back pain due to decreased muscle activity and increased pressure on the spine. Sleeping on a soft mattress may not provide adequate support for the back, potentially worsening back pain instead of preventing it.
3. A client with schizophrenia starting therapy with clozapine is being discharged. Which symptom should the client report to the provider as the highest priority?
- A. Constipation
- B. Blurred vision
- C. Fever
- D. Dry mouth
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Fever. When a client is taking clozapine, fever can indicate serious conditions such as infection or severe reactions, which need immediate medical attention. Constipation (choice A), blurred vision (choice B), and dry mouth (choice D) are common side effects of clozapine but are not as urgent as fever. Constipation can be managed with dietary changes or medications, blurred vision can improve over time, and dry mouth can be relieved with frequent sips of water.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who is in labor and has an external fetal monitor in place. The nurse observes late decelerations in the fetal heart rate. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as the cause of late decelerations?
- A. Fetal head compression
- B. Uteroplacental insufficiency
- C. Umbilical cord compression
- D. Fetal hypoxia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Late decelerations in the fetal heart rate are caused by uteroplacental insufficiency, which results from inadequate blood flow to the placenta. This leads to reduced oxygen and nutrients reaching the fetus during contractions. Choice A, fetal head compression, does not typically cause late decelerations but can result in variable decelerations. Choice C, umbilical cord compression, usually leads to variable decelerations. Choice D, fetal hypoxia, is a broad term and not the direct cause of late decelerations, which are specifically linked to uteroplacental insufficiency.
5. Which lab value is critical for monitoring warfarin therapy?
- A. Monitor INR
- B. Monitor platelet count
- C. Monitor sodium levels
- D. Monitor calcium levels
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial for monitoring warfarin therapy as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and bleeding risks associated with the medication. INR measures the clotting tendency of blood, which is essential in determining the appropriate dosage of warfarin. Monitoring platelet count (B), sodium levels (C), or calcium levels (D) is not primarily used for assessing warfarin therapy. Platelet count is more relevant in assessing bleeding disorders, while sodium and calcium levels are typically monitored for different medical conditions unrelated to warfarin therapy.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
ATI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
ATI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All ATI courses Coverage
- 30 days access