Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with conversion disorder. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?

• A. Paralysis of a limb
• B. Auditory hallucinations
• C. Dissociative amnesia
• D. Compulsive behaviors

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Conversion disorder is characterized by the development of neurological symptoms, such as paralysis of a limb, that cannot be explained by medical evaluation. The paralysis is typically due to a psychological conflict or stress rather than a physical issue. Auditory hallucinations, dissociative amnesia, and compulsive behaviors are not commonly associated with conversion disorder, making them incorrect choices. Therefore, the healthcare provider should expect to find paralysis of a limb in a client with conversion disorder.

2. When caring for a client with anorexia nervosa in a psychiatric unit, which intervention should the nurse implement to address the client's nutritional needs?

• A. Provide small, frequent meals throughout the day.
• B. Monitor the client's weight daily.
• C. Offer a liquid supplement if the client refuses solid food.
• D. Encourage the client to choose from a variety of food options.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Providing small, frequent meals throughout the day is a crucial intervention when caring for a client with anorexia nervosa. This approach helps in gradually increasing caloric intake and meeting the client's nutritional needs. Offering large meals can be overwhelming and may contribute to anxiety in these clients. By providing small, frequent meals, the nurse supports the client in establishing a healthier eating pattern and aids in the restoration of adequate nutrition levels. Monitoring the client's weight daily (Choice B) may exacerbate anxiety related to body image and weight, which are common concerns in anorexia nervosa. Offering a liquid supplement if the client refuses solid food (Choice C) may not address the underlying issues related to food aversion and may not provide the necessary nutrients in a balanced way. Encouraging the client to choose from a variety of food options (Choice D) may be overwhelming for someone with anorexia nervosa and could lead to increased anxiety around food choices.

3. Which of the following are potential side effects of electroconvulsive therapy (ECT)? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Short-term memory loss
• B. Headache
• C. Confusion
• D. Tardive dyskinesia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Potential side effects of ECT include short-term memory loss, headache, confusion, and nausea. Tardive dyskinesia is not a side effect of ECT; it is associated with long-term use of antipsychotic medications, particularly antipsychotics that block dopamine receptors over time. ECT is primarily used for severe depression, bipolar disorder, and certain psychotic disorders. The other choices, short-term memory loss, headache, and confusion, are known side effects of ECT and are usually short-term and manageable.

4. A patient with major depressive disorder is started on venlafaxine. Which class of antidepressant does this medication belong to?

• A. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)
• B. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs)
• C. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs)
• D. Serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Venlafaxine is classified as a serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI). SNRIs work by increasing the levels of both serotonin and norepinephrine in the brain, which helps alleviate symptoms of depression. This mechanism of action distinguishes SNRIs from other classes of antidepressants like SSRIs, TCAs, and MAOIs, making venlafaxine an effective choice for patients with major depressive disorder. Therefore, the correct answer is D. Choice A, SSRIs, primarily target serotonin reuptake only. Choice B, TCAs, work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin, but they are not as selective as SNRIs. Choice C, MAOIs, inhibit the enzyme monoamine oxidase, leading to increased levels of various neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine, but they are typically used as second- or third-line agents due to dietary restrictions and potential side effects.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a client with suspected post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). Which of the following findings should the provider expect? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Flashbacks
• B. Avoidance of reminders of the trauma
• C. Increased arousal and hypervigilance
• D. Manic episodes

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is characterized by various symptoms, including flashbacks, avoidance of reminders of the trauma, increased arousal, and hypervigilance. Additionally, individuals with PTSD often experience negative changes in thoughts and mood. Manic episodes, which are periods of abnormally elevated mood and energy, are not typically associated with PTSD. Therefore, the correct answer is 'Manic episodes.' Choices A, B, and C are all common findings in individuals with PTSD.

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