ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Proctored Exam 2019
1. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has been diagnosed with conversion disorder. Which of the following findings should the provider expect?
- A. Paralysis of a limb
- B. Auditory hallucinations
- C. Dissociative amnesia
- D. Compulsive behaviors
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Conversion disorder is characterized by the development of neurological symptoms, such as paralysis of a limb, that cannot be explained by medical evaluation. The paralysis is typically due to a psychological conflict or stress rather than a physical issue. Auditory hallucinations, dissociative amnesia, and compulsive behaviors are not commonly associated with conversion disorder, making them incorrect choices. Therefore, the healthcare provider should expect to find paralysis of a limb in a client with conversion disorder.
2. In the treatment of a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) using cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), which specific type of CBT is most effective?
- A. Dialectical behavior therapy
- B. Exposure and response prevention
- C. Interpersonal therapy
- D. Supportive therapy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Exposure and response prevention (ERP) is a specific type of CBT that is considered the most effective treatment for OCD. ERP involves exposing the individual to anxiety-provoking stimuli and preventing the usual compulsive responses, leading to a decreased anxiety response over time. This type of therapy helps individuals learn to tolerate the anxiety triggered by obsessions without engaging in compulsions, ultimately reducing OCD symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Dialectical behavior therapy (Choice A) is more commonly used for treating conditions like borderline personality disorder, not OCD. Interpersonal therapy (Choice C) focuses on improving interpersonal relationships and communication skills, which is not the primary approach for OCD. Supportive therapy (Choice D) provides emotional support and guidance but is not as effective as ERP in treating OCD.
3. A client has been prescribed lorazepam (Ativan) for the treatment of anxiety. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take the medication with food to avoid stomach upset.
- B. Avoid driving until you know how the medication affects you.
- C. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
- D. Double the dose if you miss a dose.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because lorazepam (Ativan) can cause dizziness and drowsiness, so the client should avoid driving until they know how the medication affects them. This instruction is crucial for ensuring the client's safety and preventing any potential accidents or harm. Choice A is incorrect because lorazepam does not necessarily need to be taken with food. Choice C is incorrect as it contradicts the usual recommendation of taking lorazepam with or without food. Choice D is incorrect and dangerous advice as doubling the dose of lorazepam can lead to overdose and serious complications.
4. During an assessment, a nurse observes a client showing signs of moderate anxiety. Which symptom is not typically associated with moderate anxiety?
- A. Fidgeting
- B. Laughing inappropriately
- C. Palpitations
- D. Nail biting
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When assessing a client with moderate anxiety, the nurse should anticipate signs such as fidgeting, laughing inappropriately, and nail biting. These behaviors are common manifestations of increased stress levels. Palpitations, on the other hand, are more commonly associated with severe anxiety or panic attacks. Other symptoms of severe anxiety may include restlessness, difficulty concentrating, muscle tension, and sleep disturbances.
5. A client with bipolar disorder is experiencing a manic episode. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement? Select one that does not apply.
- A. Provide a structured environment
- B. Encourage rest periods
- C. Limit setting on inappropriate behaviors
- D. Allow the client to engage in stimulating activities
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a manic episode, it is essential to provide a structured environment to help the client maintain stability. Encouraging rest periods is crucial as excessive activity during mania can lead to exhaustion. Setting limits on inappropriate behaviors helps ensure the client's safety and the safety of others. Allowing the client to engage in stimulating activities can exacerbate manic symptoms by further increasing their energy levels and impulsivity. This can lead to a worsening of the manic episode and potentially risky behaviors. Therefore, allowing the client to engage in stimulating activities is not an appropriate intervention during a manic episode.
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