Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for developing pressure ulcers. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Use a donut-shaped cushion for sitting
• B. Turn the client every 4 hours
• C. Elevate the head of the bed to 45 degrees
• D. Massage reddened areas to increase circulation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed reduces pressure on bony prominences, which helps prevent pressure ulcers.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?

• A. Calcium level of 9.0 mg/dL
• B. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L
• C. Respiratory rate of 18/min
• D. Stridor

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Stridor is a high-pitched sound that indicates airway obstruction and is the priority finding to report following a thyroidectomy. In this situation, airway compromise is a critical concern that requires immediate intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation. While calcium level (Choice A) and serum sodium level (Choice B) are important assessments post-thyroidectomy, they do not represent an immediate threat to the client's airway. A respiratory rate of 18/min (Choice C) falls within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate risk to the client's airway compared to the presence of stridor.

3. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new temporary synchronous pacemaker. Which of the following should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. The client's pulse oximetry level is 96%.
• B. The client develops hiccups.
• C. The ECG shows pacing spikes after the QRS complex.
• D. The client's heart rate is 90 beats per minute.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Pacing spikes after the QRS complex indicate a malfunction of the pacemaker and should be reported. Choice A is not directly related to the pacemaker function. Choice B, hiccups, are common and not typically associated with pacemaker issues. Choice D, a heart rate of 90 beats per minute, is within the normal range and does not indicate a pacemaker malfunction.

4. A client at 10 weeks of gestation reports frequent nausea and vomiting. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Eat high-protein foods.
• B. Lie down after meals.
• C. Drink water with meals.
• D. Eat dry carbohydrates before getting out of bed.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During early pregnancy, nausea and vomiting are common. Instructing the client to eat dry carbohydrates like crackers before getting out of bed can help alleviate these symptoms. This recommendation helps prevent an empty stomach, which can worsen nausea. High-protein foods (Choice A) may be harder to digest and could exacerbate nausea. Lying down after meals (Choice B) may increase gastric reflux and worsen symptoms. Drinking water with meals (Choice C) may make the client feel fuller, potentially worsening nausea.

5. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will avoid aspirin while taking this medication.
• B. I will increase my intake of green leafy vegetables.
• C. I will take this medication with an antacid.
• D. I should expect mild bruising around my elbows.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "I will avoid aspirin while taking this medication." Clients taking warfarin should avoid aspirin due to the increased risk of bleeding. Choice B is incorrect because increasing the intake of green leafy vegetables high in Vitamin K can interfere with the effects of warfarin. Choice C is incorrect because warfarin should not be taken with antacids as they can decrease its absorption. Choice D is incorrect because mild bruising is a common side effect of warfarin due to its anticoagulant properties.

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