Nursing Elites

1. In the treatment of a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) using cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), which specific type of CBT is most effective?

• A. Dialectical behavior therapy
• B. Exposure and response prevention
• C. Interpersonal therapy
• D. Supportive therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Exposure and response prevention (ERP) is a specific type of CBT that is considered the most effective treatment for OCD. ERP involves exposing the individual to anxiety-provoking stimuli and preventing the usual compulsive responses, leading to a decreased anxiety response over time. This type of therapy helps individuals learn to tolerate the anxiety triggered by obsessions without engaging in compulsions, ultimately reducing OCD symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Dialectical behavior therapy (Choice A) is more commonly used for treating conditions like borderline personality disorder, not OCD. Interpersonal therapy (Choice C) focuses on improving interpersonal relationships and communication skills, which is not the primary approach for OCD. Supportive therapy (Choice D) provides emotional support and guidance but is not as effective as ERP in treating OCD.

2. Which of the following are common side effects of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Nausea
• B. Insomnia
• C. Weight loss
• D. Sexual dysfunction

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Common side effects of selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) include nausea, insomnia, weight gain, and sexual dysfunction. Weight loss is not a common side effect associated with SSRIs. Therefore, the correct answer is C. While some individuals may experience weight changes while taking SSRIs, weight loss is less common compared to weight gain as a side effect of these medications.

3. A client with schizophrenia is prescribed an antipsychotic medication. Which of the following side effects should the nurse monitor for? Select one that does not apply.

• A. Tardive dyskinesia
• B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
• C. Mindfulness meditation
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Mindfulness meditation.' Side effects of antipsychotic medications include tardive dyskinesia, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, orthostatic hypotension, and hyperglycemia. Mindfulness meditation is not a side effect of antipsychotic medications. Choices A, B, and D are all potential side effects of antipsychotic medications. Tardive dyskinesia is a movement disorder characterized by repetitive, involuntary movements. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome is a rare but life-threatening reaction to antipsychotic medication. Hyperglycemia can occur as a side effect of some antipsychotic medications, particularly the second-generation ones.

4. When assessing a client's behavior for potential aggression, what behavior would be recognized as the highest predictor of future violence?

• A. Pacing and restlessness
• B. Verbal threats
• C. History of violence
• D. Substance abuse

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A history of violence is considered the highest predictor of future violence. Clients who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts in the future compared to those who exhibit other behaviors such as pacing, making verbal threats, or having substance abuse issues. Understanding a client's history of violence is crucial in assessing the risk of potential aggression and violence. Pacing and restlessness, verbal threats, and substance abuse can be concerning behaviors but do not carry the same predictive value for future violence as a documented history of violent behavior.

5. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. Which nursing intervention should the nurse implement to address this symptom?

• A. Encourage the client to express feelings about the hallucinations.
• B. Distract the client from the hallucinations.
• C. Provide reality-based feedback about the hallucinations.
• D. Encourage the client to ignore the hallucinations.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client experiencing auditory hallucinations in schizophrenia is to provide reality-based feedback about the hallucinations. By providing reality-based feedback, the nurse helps the client differentiate between what is real and what is not, which can help decrease the distress and impact of the hallucinations on the client's perception of reality. Encouraging the client to express feelings (Choice A) may not directly address the hallucinations. Distracting the client (Choice B) may temporarily alleviate the symptoms but does not help the client differentiate reality from hallucinations. Encouraging the client to ignore the hallucinations (Choice D) may not be effective as the client may struggle to do so without appropriate guidance.

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