Nursing Elites

1. In the treatment of a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) using cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), which specific type of CBT is most effective?

• A. Dialectical behavior therapy
• B. Exposure and response prevention
• C. Interpersonal therapy
• D. Supportive therapy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Exposure and response prevention (ERP) is a specific type of CBT that is considered the most effective treatment for OCD. ERP involves exposing the individual to anxiety-provoking stimuli and preventing the usual compulsive responses, leading to a decreased anxiety response over time. This type of therapy helps individuals learn to tolerate the anxiety triggered by obsessions without engaging in compulsions, ultimately reducing OCD symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Dialectical behavior therapy (Choice A) is more commonly used for treating conditions like borderline personality disorder, not OCD. Interpersonal therapy (Choice C) focuses on improving interpersonal relationships and communication skills, which is not the primary approach for OCD. Supportive therapy (Choice D) provides emotional support and guidance but is not as effective as ERP in treating OCD.

2. Which medication is commonly prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder?

• A. Haloperidol
• B. Clonazepam
• C. Lithium
• D. Fluoxetine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Clonazepam, a benzodiazepine, is commonly prescribed for the treatment of panic disorder due to its anxiolytic properties. It helps reduce the frequency and intensity of panic attacks by acting on the central nervous system to produce a calming effect. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic medication, lithium is primarily used for bipolar disorder, and fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) commonly used for depression and some anxiety disorders, but not as a first-line treatment for panic disorder.

3. When assessing a patient with schizophrenia who exhibits disorganized speech and behavior, these symptoms are classified as:

• A. Positive symptoms
• B. Negative symptoms
• C. Cognitive symptoms
• D. Mood symptoms

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Positive symptoms in schizophrenia refer to excesses or distortions in normal behavior and include symptoms like hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized speech and behavior. Disorganized speech and behavior are considered positive symptoms because they represent an excess or distortion of normal functions. Negative symptoms involve deficits in normal behavior, cognitive symptoms affect thinking processes, and mood symptoms relate to emotional experiences. Therefore, in this scenario, the disorganized speech and behavior exhibited by the patient are classified as positive symptoms.

4. How do psychiatrists determine which diagnosis to give a patient?

• A. Psychiatrists use pre-established criteria from the APA's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5).
• B. Hospital policy dictates how psychiatrists diagnose mental disorders.
• C. Psychiatrists assess the patient and identify diagnoses based on the patient's symptoms and contributing factors.
• D. The American Medical Association identifies 10 diagnostic labels that psychiatrists can choose from.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Psychiatrists use pre-established criteria from the APA's Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) to determine which diagnosis to give a patient. The DSM-5 is a comprehensive manual published by the American Psychiatric Association (APA) that outlines specific criteria for diagnosing mental disorders. It aims to ensure accurate and consistent diagnosis and treatment. Choices B and D provide inaccurate information. Hospital policy does not dictate psychiatric diagnoses, and the American Medical Association does not provide diagnostic labels for mental disorders. Choice C, although mentioning the assessment of patients, does not highlight the specific criteria and guidelines provided by the DSM-5 that psychiatrists use to assign diagnoses.

5. A client has been prescribed sertraline for depression, and the nurse is providing discharge instructions. Which dietary instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid foods high in sodium.
• B. Avoid foods high in calcium.
• C. Avoid foods high in tyramine.
• D. Avoid foods high in potassium.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients prescribed sertraline should avoid foods high in tyramine to prevent a hypertensive crisis. Sertraline, an antidepressant belonging to the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) class, can interact with tyramine-rich foods, potentially causing a dangerous increase in blood pressure known as a hypertensive crisis. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because there is no specific dietary restriction related to sodium, calcium, or potassium intake when taking sertraline.

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