ATI RN
ATI Mental Health Practice A
1. In the treatment of a patient with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) using cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT), which specific type of CBT is most effective?
- A. Dialectical behavior therapy
- B. Exposure and response prevention
- C. Interpersonal therapy
- D. Supportive therapy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Exposure and response prevention (ERP) is a specific type of CBT that is considered the most effective treatment for OCD. ERP involves exposing the individual to anxiety-provoking stimuli and preventing the usual compulsive responses, leading to a decreased anxiety response over time. This type of therapy helps individuals learn to tolerate the anxiety triggered by obsessions without engaging in compulsions, ultimately reducing OCD symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Dialectical behavior therapy (Choice A) is more commonly used for treating conditions like borderline personality disorder, not OCD. Interpersonal therapy (Choice C) focuses on improving interpersonal relationships and communication skills, which is not the primary approach for OCD. Supportive therapy (Choice D) provides emotional support and guidance but is not as effective as ERP in treating OCD.
2. What can the nurse NOT teach a client with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) to reduce the risk of infection?
- A. Share toothpaste with family members
- B. Avoid raw fruits and vegetables
- C. Avoid cleaning your toothbrush with bleach
- D. Wash your hands thoroughly
Correct answer: Share toothpaste with family members
Rationale:
3. How does a healthcare professional assess a patient's fluid balance, and what signs indicate fluid overload?
- A. Checking lung sounds for crackles
- B. Checking for signs of orthopnea
- C. Monitoring intake and output, and checking for edema
- D. Measuring daily weight
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring intake and output and checking for edema. Monitoring intake and output provides information about fluid balance in the body, while checking for edema helps assess for fluid overload. Lung sounds and signs of orthopnea are more indicative of respiratory issues rather than fluid balance. Daily weight measurement is useful to assess fluid status, but it alone may not provide a comprehensive evaluation of fluid balance.
4. The client is on a calcium channel blocker. What is the expected effect on the heart?
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Decreased heart rate
- C. Increased blood pressure
- D. Decreased blood pressure
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When a client is on a calcium channel blocker, the expected effect on the heart is a decreased heart rate and decreased blood pressure. Calcium channel blockers work by dilating blood vessels and reducing the heart's workload, resulting in decreased blood pressure. Choice A, increased heart rate, is incorrect as calcium channel blockers actually have a negative chronotropic effect, reducing the heart rate. Choice C, increased blood pressure, is also incorrect because these medications are used to lower blood pressure.
5. The nurse is caring for a client on the first postoperative day following a surgical repair of an abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which nursing diagnosis is the most important for this client?
- A. Risk for infection
- B. Deficient knowledge
- C. Ineffective peripheral tissue perfusion
- D. Activity intolerance
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Peripheral tissue perfusion is a major concern in the postoperative period following an abdominal aneurysm repair. Peripheral pulses should be checked frequently during the first 24 hours. A weak or absent pulse may be a sign of embolization or graft closure, especially if accompanied by a pale, cold, mottled extremity; the nurse should immediately report this to the surgeon. Risk for infection, deficient knowledge, and activity intolerance are all important nursing diagnoses in the postoperative period, but peripheral tissue perfusion is the most immediate concern.
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