Nursing Elites

1. During a mental status examination, which of the following components should not be included in the assessment?

• A. Appearance and behavior
• B. Giving advice
• C. Mood and affect
• D. Cognitive function

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a mental status examination, components such as appearance and behavior, mood and affect, and cognitive function are assessed. Giving advice is not a component of a mental status examination as it focuses on evaluating the client's mental state rather than providing guidance or recommendations.

2. A client has a history of excessive drinking, which has led to multiple arrests for driving under the influence (DUI). The client states, 'I work hard to provide for my family. I don't see why I can't drink to relax.' The nurse recognizes the use of which defense mechanism?

• A. Projection
• B. Rationalization
• C. Regression
• D. Sublimation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Rationalization. The client is using rationalization as a defense mechanism by justifying their excessive drinking as a way to relax due to working hard to provide for their family. Rationalization involves creating logical excuses to justify unacceptable feelings or behaviors. Projection involves attributing one's unacceptable feelings or thoughts to others. Regression is reverting to an earlier stage of development in the face of unacceptable thoughts or impulses. Sublimation is the channeling of unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable activities.

3. A client with a history of alcohol use disorder is admitted to the hospital for detoxification. Which of the following symptoms should the nurse expect to observe during withdrawal? Select one that doesn't apply.

• A. Tremors
• B. Hallucinations
• C. Diaphoresis
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: D

Rationale: During alcohol withdrawal, symptoms such as tremors, hallucinations, diaphoresis, and seizures are commonly observed. Bradycardia is not typically associated with alcohol withdrawal; instead, tachycardia, an increased heart rate, is more commonly seen. Therefore, bradycardia is the correct answer as it is not an expected symptom during alcohol withdrawal. Tremors, hallucinations, and diaphoresis are all common manifestations of alcohol withdrawal, while bradycardia is not typically seen in this context.

4. A patient with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is prescribed venlafaxine. The nurse should educate the patient about which potential side effect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypotension
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Venlafaxine, an SNRI, can lead to hypertension as a side effect. This medication can cause an increase in blood pressure, particularly at higher doses. Educating the patient about this potential adverse effect is crucial to enhance awareness and monitoring for any signs or symptoms of elevated blood pressure. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because venlafaxine is more likely to cause hypertension rather than hypotension, bradycardia, or hyperglycemia.

5. A client is prescribed lorazepam (Ativan) for the management of anxiety. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. I should take this medication at the same time every day.
• B. I can drink alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. I should avoid driving while taking this medication.
• D. I should avoid using this medication during pregnancy.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Clients should avoid alcohol while taking lorazepam (Ativan) due to potential interactions. Alcohol can increase the side effects of lorazepam, such as drowsiness and dizziness, which can be dangerous, especially when combined with activities like driving or operating machinery. Choice A is correct as it promotes medication adherence. Choice C is correct as lorazepam can impair cognitive and motor skills, impacting driving ability. Choice D is correct as lorazepam is not recommended during pregnancy due to potential harm to the fetus.

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