Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving treatment with irinotecan. Which of the following findings should the nurse monitor?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Hypertension
• C. Ototoxicity
• D. Neutropenia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Irinotecan is known to commonly cause diarrhea as an adverse effect due to its impact on the gastrointestinal tract. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of diarrhea while receiving this treatment. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because irinotecan is not typically associated with hypertension, ototoxicity, or neutropenia as primary adverse effects. While these side effects can occur with other medications, they are not the main concerns when monitoring a client receiving irinotecan.

2. A client has a new prescription for Loperamide. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water.
• B. Avoid activities that require alertness.
• C. Increase your intake of high-fiber foods.
• D. Expect your stools to be black and tarry.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Loperamide can cause drowsiness and dizziness, so clients should avoid activities that require alertness until they know how the medication affects them. Taking the medication with a full glass of water can help with absorption. Increasing intake of high-fiber foods is not directly related to Loperamide. Black, tarry stools are not expected side effects of this medication, so informing the client to expect this is incorrect.

3. A client has a new prescription for spironolactone. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which of the following foods?

• A. Salt substitutes
• B. Apples
• C. Chicken
• D. Bananas

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic. The client should avoid salt substitutes because they often contain potassium, which could lead to hyperkalemia. Hyperkalemia, or high levels of potassium in the blood, is a potential side effect of spironolactone, and ingesting additional potassium from salt substitutes can exacerbate this risk.

4. A client is to receive Pamidronate for bone pain related to cancer. What precaution should the nurse take during the administration of Pamidronate?

• A. Inspect the skin for redness and irritation around the injection site.
• B. Assess the IV site for thrombophlebitis frequently during administration.
• C. Instruct the client to lie down for 30 minutes after oral administration.
• D. Monitor for signs of anaphylaxis for 20 minutes after intramuscular injection.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Pamidronate is typically administered through IV infusion, which can cause irritation to veins. The nurse should frequently assess the IV site for thrombophlebitis during the administration to promptly detect any potential complications related to the infusion. Inspecting the skin for redness and irritation around the injection site (Choice A) is not directly related to IV infusion. Instructing the client to lie down after oral administration (Choice C) is not necessary for IV administration. Monitoring for signs of anaphylaxis after an intramuscular injection (Choice D) is not relevant for an IV infusion of Pamidronate.

5. A client with Preeclampsia is receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. 2+ deep tendon reflexes
• B. 2+ pedal edema
• C. 24 mL/hr urinary output
• D. Respirations 12/min

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a client receiving Magnesium Sulfate IV continuous infusion for Preeclampsia, a urinary output less than 25 to 30 mL/hr is indicative of magnesium sulfate toxicity and should be promptly reported to the provider for further evaluation and management. Therefore, the correct answer is C. Option A, 2+ deep tendon reflexes, are expected findings in a client receiving magnesium sulfate and do not require immediate reporting. Option B, 2+ pedal edema, is a common symptom of preeclampsia and typically does not require immediate intervention. Option D, respirations 12/min, are within the normal range and do not indicate an immediate need for reporting to the provider.

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