ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following abdominal surgery and has an indwelling urinary catheter that is draining dark yellow urine at 25 ml/hr. What intervention should the nurse anticipate?
- A. Clamp the catheter.
- B. Administer a fluid bolus.
- C. Obtain a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity.
- D. Initiate continuous bladder irrigation.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should anticipate initiating continuous bladder irrigation. Dark yellow urine output at a rate of 25 ml/hr following abdominal surgery may indicate urinary stasis or obstruction, which could lead to complications like urinary retention. Continuous bladder irrigation helps prevent catheter obstruction and manage urinary retention by ensuring patency and promoting urine flow. Clamping the catheter (Choice A) could lead to urinary stasis and should be avoided. Administering a fluid bolus (Choice B) is not indicated solely based on the urine color and output described. Obtaining a urine specimen for culture and sensitivity (Choice C) may be necessary for assessing infection but does not directly address the issue of urinary stasis or obstruction.
2. A nurse is teaching a client about self-administration of enoxaparin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Administer the injection into the muscle of your thigh.
- B. Pinch the skin before inserting the needle.
- C. Rub the injection site after administering the medication.
- D. Administer the injection into the fat tissue of your abdomen.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct instruction for self-administration of enoxaparin is to inject it into the fat tissue of the abdomen for proper absorption. Choice A is incorrect as enoxaparin should not be injected into the muscle. Choice B is unnecessary for enoxaparin administration. Choice C is incorrect as rubbing the injection site after administering the medication is not recommended.
3. A nurse is planning care for a client who has a stage 3 pressure injury. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Cleanse the wound with povidone-iodine solution daily.
- B. Irrigate the wound with hydrogen peroxide.
- C. Reposition the client every 4 hours.
- D. Use a moisture barrier ointment.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to use a moisture barrier ointment. This intervention helps protect the skin and promote healing in clients with stage 3 pressure injuries. Cleansing the wound with povidone-iodine solution daily (Choice A) can be too harsh and may delay healing by damaging the surrounding skin. Irrigating the wound with hydrogen peroxide (Choice B) is not recommended as it can be cytotoxic to healing tissue. While repositioning the client every 4 hours (Choice C) is an essential intervention in preventing pressure injuries, it is not directly related to the care of an existing stage 3 pressure injury.
4. A nurse is caring for a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Peripheral edema.
- B. Bradycardia.
- C. Jugular vein distention.
- D. Dependent edema.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Jugular vein distention is a classic sign of left-sided heart failure due to fluid overload in the pulmonary circulation. This occurs because the heart's left side is unable to pump effectively, causing increased pressure in the pulmonary veins and leading to blood backing up into the pulmonary circulation. Peripheral edema (choice A) and dependent edema (choice D) are more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure where blood pools in the systemic circulation, causing swelling in the extremities. Bradycardia (choice B) is not typically a direct consequence of left-sided heart failure; instead, tachycardia is more commonly seen as the heart compensates for its reduced efficiency.
5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who has diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium 4.2 mEq/L
- B. Glucose 250 mg/dL
- C. Bicarbonate 20 mEq/L
- D. Sodium 135 mEq/L
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. A glucose level of 250 mg/dL indicates hyperglycemia, which is expected in DKA. However, in the context of DKA management, persistent or worsening hyperglycemia can indicate inadequate treatment response or complications, necessitating further monitoring and intervention. Potassium levels are crucial in DKA due to the risk of hypokalemia, but a level of 4.2 mEq/L is within the normal range. Bicarbonate levels are typically low in DKA, making a value of 20 mEq/L consistent with the condition. Sodium levels of 135 mEq/L are also within normal limits and not a priority for immediate reporting in the context of DKA.
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