a nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report t
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is postoperative following a thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Serum calcium level of 8.0 mg/dL.' A low serum calcium level indicates hypocalcemia, which is a potential complication of thyroidectomy that can lead to life-threatening consequences, such as tetany or laryngospasm. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to report this finding promptly to the provider for timely intervention. Choices A, C, and D are important assessments following a thyroidectomy but are not as critical as detecting and addressing hypocalcemia, which can have serious implications for the client's health.

2. A client with iron deficiency anemia has a new prescription for ferrous sulfate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct instruction is to take ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach to increase absorption. This is because taking it with food or dairy products like milk can reduce its absorption. Orange juice is not recommended as it may interfere with the absorption of iron. Taking ferrous sulfate on an empty stomach may cause gastrointestinal upset, but this can be minimized by gradually increasing the dose.

3. A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client who has acute kidney injury. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Serum creatinine 3.5 mg/dL.' An elevated serum creatinine level indicates worsening kidney function and impaired renal clearance, which should be reported to the provider promptly. Choice A, 'Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) 15 mg/dL,' is within the normal range (7-20 mg/dL) and does not indicate acute kidney injury. Choice B, 'Urine output of 45 mL/hr,' is a low urine output but does not directly reflect kidney function decline. Choice D, 'Calcium 9 mg/dL,' is within the normal calcium range (8.5-10.5 mg/dL) and is not specifically indicative of acute kidney injury.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for furosemide. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that the medication is effective?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Weight loss of 0.5 kg (1.1 lb) in 24 hours is an indication that furosemide is effectively reducing fluid retention. This medication works by promoting diuresis, resulting in increased urine output, which could lead to weight loss. While increased urinary output (choice B) is a common effect of furosemide, weight loss is a more specific indicator of its effectiveness. Blood pressure (choice C) and decreased peripheral edema (choice D) can be influenced by various factors and are not direct indicators of furosemide's effectiveness in reducing fluid retention.

5. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who is receiving opioid analgesics. Which of the following findings should the professional report to the provider?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 12/min may indicate respiratory depression, a potential side effect of opioid analgesics. Respiratory depression can be a serious complication that requires immediate intervention. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in clients receiving opioids to prevent adverse events. Oxygen saturation, blood pressure, and heart rate are important parameters to assess, but a low respiratory rate is a more critical finding that warrants immediate reporting to the healthcare provider.

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