Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for the past 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?

• A. Maternal fever.
• B. Fetal anemia.
• C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
• D. Chorioamnionitis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the FHR baseline of 100/min for the past 15 minutes indicates fetal bradycardia, which can be caused by maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to decreased oxygen supply to the fetus, resulting in fetal bradycardia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia in the fetus rather than bradycardia. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to manifest as tachycardia due to compensation for decreased oxygen delivery. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) may lead to fetal tachycardia as a sign of fetal distress, not bradycardia.

2. What is the best way to manage a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?

• A. Administer anticoagulants
• B. Apply compression stockings
• C. Encourage ambulation
• D. Monitor oxygen saturation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer anticoagulants. Administering anticoagulants is crucial in managing patients with suspected DVT as it helps prevent further clot formation and reduces the risk of complications like pulmonary embolism. Choice B, applying compression stockings, is more focused on preventing DVT in high-risk patients rather than managing an established case. Encouraging ambulation, choice C, is beneficial in the prevention of DVT but is not the primary management for suspected cases. Monitoring oxygen saturation, choice D, is important in overall patient care but is not the primary intervention for suspected DVT.

3. What is the best method to manage fluid overload in a patient with heart failure?

• A. Administer diuretics
• B. Provide oral fluids
• C. Increase fluid intake
• D. Provide chest physiotherapy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering diuretics is the best method to manage fluid overload in a patient with heart failure. Diuretics help to remove excess fluid from the body by increasing urine output, thus reducing the fluid volume in the bloodstream and tissues. Providing oral fluids (choice B) or increasing fluid intake (choice C) would exacerbate the fluid overload rather than managing it. Chest physiotherapy (choice D) is not indicated for managing fluid overload in heart failure; it is more commonly used for conditions affecting the lungs or airways.

4. A nurse is caring for a client who is 1 hour postoperative following a thoracentesis. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Oxygen saturation of 96%
• B. Tracheal deviation
• C. Pain level of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10
• D. Temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tracheal deviation is the correct finding to report to the provider. It can indicate a pneumothorax, which is a serious complication following a thoracentesis that requires immediate attention. Oxygen saturation of 96% is within the normal range and does not indicate an immediate issue. A pain level of 4 on a scale of 0 to 10 is subjective and may not be related to a serious complication. A temperature of 37.4°C (99.3°F) is slightly elevated but not a priority over tracheal deviation in this context.

5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for prednisone. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

• A. I will avoid crowded places to reduce my risk of infection.
• B. I will take this medication on an empty stomach.
• C. I will stop taking this medication if I experience nausea.
• D. I will take this medication for 2 weeks and then stop.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I will avoid crowded places to reduce my risk of infection.' When taking prednisone, clients should avoid crowded places to reduce the risk of infection due to its immunosuppressive effects. Choice B is incorrect because prednisone is usually taken with food to reduce stomach upset. Choice C is incorrect because clients should not stop taking prednisone abruptly, even if they experience nausea. Choice D is incorrect because prednisone should be tapered off gradually under healthcare provider guidance instead of being stopped abruptly after 2 weeks.

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