which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has pneumonia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to promote airway clearance?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Encouraging the client to increase fluid intake is essential in promoting airway clearance for a client with pneumonia. Increased fluid intake helps thin secretions, making it easier for the client to clear their airways. Chest physiotherapy (Choice A) is more focused on mobilizing secretions and may not be suitable for all clients with pneumonia. Suctioning (Choice B) is indicated for clients who have excessive secretions that they cannot manage effectively themselves. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula (Choice D) is important for clients with pneumonia to maintain adequate oxygenation, but it does not directly promote airway clearance.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who has dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. Tachycardia is a common sign of dehydration because the body tries to compensate for the reduced fluid volume by increasing the heart rate. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically seen in dehydration as the body tries to maintain perfusion. Increased skin turgor (choice B) is actually a sign of dehydration, but tachycardia is a more specific finding. A bounding pulse (choice D) is associated with conditions like hyperthyroidism or aortic regurgitation, not dehydration.

4. A client is postoperative following abdominal surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A urine output of 25 mL/hr is a sign of oliguria, which may indicate dehydration or kidney impairment and should be reported. A heart rate of 90/min is within the normal range (60-100/min) for adults at rest and may be expected postoperatively. A temperature of 37.1°C (98.8°F) is within the normal range (36.1-37.2°C or 97-99°F) and does not indicate an immediate concern. Serosanguineous wound drainage is a common finding postoperatively and indicates a normal healing process.

5. A client with a new diagnosis of hypertension is receiving discharge teaching. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because limiting saturated fat intake to 7% of daily calories is a crucial component of the dietary management for hypertension. This dietary modification helps reduce the risk of cardiovascular complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Choice A is incorrect because medication adherence should not be based on symptoms like dizziness. Choice B is inadequate as blood pressure monitoring should be more frequent, preferably daily, for effective management of hypertension. Choice D is incorrect because medication for hypertension should be taken consistently as prescribed, not just when symptoms occur.

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