which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide
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Nursing Elites

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ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.

2. A client with heart failure is being educated by a nurse about fluid restrictions. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: "Avoid drinking more than 1 liter of fluid per day." Clients with heart failure are typically advised to limit their fluid intake to around 1 liter per day to prevent fluid overload, which can worsen their condition. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they suggest fluid intakes that are higher than the recommended limit, which could lead to fluid retention and exacerbate heart failure symptoms.

3. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor, and the FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What should the nurse suspect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to fetal bradycardia, which is indicated by a baseline FHR of 100/min. In this scenario, the sustained low baseline FHR suggests a possible link to maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) usually causes fetal tachycardia as a compensatory mechanism to deliver more oxygen to tissues. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is associated with maternal fever and an elevated fetal heart rate, not a sustained low baseline FHR.

4. A nurse is planning care for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a hypophysectomy for the removal of a pituitary tumor. Which of the following findings requires further assessment by the nurse?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Urinary output greater than fluid intake could indicate diabetes insipidus, a complication following hypophysectomy. Diabetes insipidus is characterized by excessive urination and extreme thirst due to inadequate levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). Options A, B, and C are all expected findings in the immediate postoperative period following a hypophysectomy. A Glasgow Coma Scale score of 15 indicates the highest level of consciousness, blood drainage on the initial dressing is a common finding after surgery, and dry mouth can be a side effect of anesthesia and surgical procedures.

5. A client with schizophrenia is pacing the hall and is agitated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when caring for a client with schizophrenia who is pacing the hall and agitated is to walk with the client at a gradually slower pace. This approach can help reduce the client's agitation and prevent the situation from escalating. Choice A is incorrect because directly asking about harm may increase the client's anxiety. Choice B is inappropriate as it may worsen the client's agitation. Choice C is not recommended as the client may benefit from the nurse's presence and support during this time of distress.

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