which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI RN Exit Exam Test Bank

1. Which electrolyte imbalance is most concerning in a patient on furosemide?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Hypokalemia. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion by increasing its excretion in the urine. Hypokalemia is a common and concerning side effect of furosemide therapy. Hyperkalemia (Choice A) is less likely as furosemide tends to lower potassium levels. Hyponatremia (Choice C) is more commonly seen with thiazide diuretics. Hypercalcemia (Choice D) is not directly associated with furosemide use.

2. When using an IV pump for a newly admitted client, what action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when using an IV pump for a newly admitted client is to hold the IV pump cord while walking the client. This is important for ensuring the safe and secure management of the IV pump during client mobility. Option A is incorrect as grasping the IV pump cord when unplugging it can lead to electrical hazards. Option B is incorrect as ensuring the pump is plugged into an outlet with two prongs is important for electrical safety but not directly related to the nurse's action. Option D is also important but does not directly address the nurse's immediate action while using the IV pump with the client.

3. A nurse is preparing to administer enoxaparin to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to inject the medication into the client's abdomen. Enoxaparin is a medication that should be administered subcutaneously, not intramuscularly. Massaging the injection site after administration is not recommended as it can cause bruising or discomfort. Injecting the medication into the deltoid muscle is also incorrect because enoxaparin should be given in areas of adipose tissue, such as the abdomen, to ensure proper absorption and effectiveness.

4. A healthcare provider is assessing a client who has COPD and is receiving oxygen therapy at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. Which of the following findings should the provider report?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Dyspnea in a client with COPD receiving oxygen should be reported as it may indicate worsening respiratory status. Oxygen saturation of 95% is within the expected range for a client receiving oxygen therapy and does not require immediate reporting. A productive cough with clear sputum is a common symptom in clients with COPD and does not necessarily warrant urgent reporting. A respiratory rate of 22/min is also within normal limits and does not raise immediate concerns in this scenario.

5. A client who has a new prescription for lisinopril is being taught by a nurse. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Lisinopril can increase potassium levels, so clients should avoid salt substitutes that contain potassium. Choice B is incorrect because lisinopril is usually taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because lisinopril can lead to hyperkalemia, so increasing potassium-rich foods is not recommended. Choice D is incorrect because lisinopril can cause increased urination, so fluid intake should not be limited.

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