a nurse is assessing a client who is 48 hours postoperative following a hip replacement which of the following findings should the nurse report to the
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Nursing Elites

ATI RN

ATI Exit Exam 2024

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is 48 hours postoperative following a hip replacement. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated WBC count 48 hours postoperatively may indicate an infection and should be reported to the provider. Choice A, a heart rate of 90/min, is within normal limits and not a concerning finding postoperatively. Choice C, urinary output of 75 mL in the past 4 hours, may indicate decreased renal perfusion, but an elevated WBC count is a more urgent finding. Choice D, a temperature of 37.8°C (100°F), which is slightly elevated, could be indicative of the body's normal response to surgery and is not as alarming as an elevated WBC count.

2. A patient is diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevating the affected extremity is crucial in managing deep vein thrombosis (DVT) as it helps reduce swelling and promotes venous return, thereby preventing further complications such as pulmonary embolism. Massaging the affected extremity can dislodge a clot and lead to serious consequences. While ambulation is important, in DVT, early ambulation without elevation can potentially dislodge the clot. Warm compresses can increase blood flow to the area and worsen the condition by promoting clot dislodgement.

3. Which lab value is essential for a patient receiving warfarin therapy?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the INR (International Normalized Ratio) for a patient receiving warfarin therapy. INR monitoring is crucial to assess the effectiveness of warfarin in preventing blood clots while minimizing the risk of bleeding. Monitoring sodium levels (choice B), potassium levels (choice C), or platelet count (choice D) is not specifically essential for patients on warfarin therapy and does not provide direct information on the drug's anticoagulant effects.

4. A healthcare professional is assessing a client receiving morphine via a patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) pump. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Hypotension is a common adverse effect of morphine due to its vasodilatory properties. It can lead to a drop in blood pressure, which should be closely monitored during administration. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a typical adverse effect of morphine. Urinary retention (Choice B) is a side effect of morphine due to its impact on the bladder muscles, but it is not classified as an adverse effect. Bradycardia (Choice D) is not a common adverse effect of morphine; instead, it tends to cause tachycardia.

5. A charge nurse is teaching new staff members about factors that increase a client's risk of becoming violent. Which of the following risk factors should the nurse include as the best predictor of future violence?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Previous violent behavior. This is the best predictor of future violence as individuals who have a history of violent behavior are more likely to engage in violent acts in the future. While experiencing delusions and being male may contribute to an increased risk of violence in certain situations, they are not as strong predictors as a history of violence. Similarly, having a history of being in prison may indicate a higher likelihood of violence, but it is not as directly linked to future violent behavior as previous violent actions.

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