Nursing Elites

1. A nurse is assessing a client who is 48 hours postoperative following a hip replacement. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?

• A. Heart rate 90/min.
• B. WBC count 15,000/mm3.
• C. Urinary output 75 mL in the past 4 hours.
• D. Temperature 37.8°C (100°F).

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An elevated WBC count 48 hours postoperatively may indicate an infection and should be reported to the provider. Choice A, a heart rate of 90/min, is within normal limits and not a concerning finding postoperatively. Choice C, urinary output of 75 mL in the past 4 hours, may indicate decreased renal perfusion, but an elevated WBC count is a more urgent finding. Choice D, a temperature of 37.8°C (100°F), which is slightly elevated, could be indicative of the body's normal response to surgery and is not as alarming as an elevated WBC count.

2. What is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism?

• A. Administer oxygen
• B. Administer anticoagulants
• C. Prepare for surgery
• D. Monitor oxygen saturation

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Administer oxygen. Administering oxygen is the priority intervention for a patient with a suspected pulmonary embolism to improve oxygenation levels. In pulmonary embolism, there is a blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries, leading to decreased oxygen exchange. Administering oxygen helps increase oxygen saturation levels. Anticoagulants (Choice B) are essential in the treatment of pulmonary embolism but are not the initial priority intervention. Surgery (Choice C) is not typically the first-line treatment for pulmonary embolism. Monitoring oxygen saturation (Choice D) is important but administering oxygen takes precedence as the immediate action to address hypoxemia.

3. Which lab value is critical for monitoring warfarin therapy?

• A. Monitor INR
• B. Monitor platelet count
• C. Monitor sodium levels
• D. Monitor calcium levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Monitor INR. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is crucial for monitoring warfarin therapy as it helps assess the therapeutic effectiveness and bleeding risks associated with the medication. INR measures the clotting tendency of blood, which is essential in determining the appropriate dosage of warfarin. Monitoring platelet count (B), sodium levels (C), or calcium levels (D) is not primarily used for assessing warfarin therapy. Platelet count is more relevant in assessing bleeding disorders, while sodium and calcium levels are typically monitored for different medical conditions unrelated to warfarin therapy.

4. A nurse is providing teaching to a client about the adverse effects of sertraline. Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include?

• A. Excessive sweating.
• B. Increased urinary frequency.
• C. Dry cough.
• D. Metallic taste in the mouth.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct adverse effect of sertraline that the nurse should include in the teaching is excessive sweating. Sertraline is known to cause this side effect in some individuals. Increased urinary frequency (choice B) is not a commonly reported adverse effect of sertraline. Dry cough (choice C) and metallic taste in the mouth (choice D) are also not typically associated with sertraline use. Therefore, the nurse should focus on educating the client about the potential adverse effect of excessive sweating.

5. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor, and the FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What should the nurse suspect?

• A. Maternal fever.
• B. Fetal anemia.
• C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
• D. Chorioamnionitis.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can lead to fetal bradycardia, which is indicated by a baseline FHR of 100/min. In this scenario, the sustained low baseline FHR suggests a possible link to maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) usually causes fetal tachycardia as a compensatory mechanism to deliver more oxygen to tissues. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is associated with maternal fever and an elevated fetal heart rate, not a sustained low baseline FHR.

Similar Questions