ATI RN
ATI Medical Surgical Proctored Exam 2023
1. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is being taught by a nurse. Which nutritional information should the nurse include in the teaching? (SATA)
- A. Avoid drinking fluids just before and during meals.
- B. Rest before meals if you have dyspnea.
- C. Have about six small meals a day.
- D. Eat high-fiber foods to promote gastric emptying.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, it's important to consider the impact of nutrition on respiratory function. Eating high-fiber foods can lead to increased gas production, causing abdominal bloating and potentially worsening shortness of breath. Therefore, it is advisable for clients with COPD to avoid high-fiber foods to prevent these issues. Resting before meals can help manage dyspnea, and having smaller, more frequent meals can prevent bloating. Increasing calorie and protein intake is essential to prevent malnourishment in COPD patients. Additionally, limiting carbohydrate intake is crucial as it can increase carbon dioxide production, leading to a higher risk of acidosis in these individuals.
2. A nurse is caring for a client with schizophrenia. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Decreased level of consciousness
- B. Inability to identify common objects
- C. Poor problem-solving ability
- D. Preoccupation with somatic disturbances
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In schizophrenia, clients often display an inability to identify common objects due to cognitive impairment. This is known as associative agnosia, where individuals struggle to recognize familiar objects, faces, or sounds. Choices A, C, and D are not typically associated with schizophrenia. Decreased level of consciousness is more indicative of conditions like head trauma or drug overdose. Poor problem-solving ability may be seen in various mental health disorders but is not specific to schizophrenia. Preoccupation with somatic disturbances is more commonly seen in somatic symptom disorders or somatic delusions, not a typical finding in schizophrenia.
3. What is it called when the therapist adjusts the difficulty level of an activity to match the child's abilities by bringing a toy closer for them to successfully reach and grasp during therapy?
- A. Compensating
- B. Adapting
- C. Grading
- D. Modifying
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Grading. Grading involves adjusting the difficulty level of an activity to match the child's abilities. Bringing a toy closer for easier reach is an example of grading in therapy, helping the child succeed in reaching and grasping the toy within their current capabilities. Choice A, Compensating, implies making up for a deficit, which is not the case here. Choice B, Adapting, suggests changing the activity itself, not just the difficulty level. Choice D, Modifying, indicates altering the toy or the task itself, rather than adjusting the task's difficulty level.
4. A client has a prescription for Alendronate. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Take this medication before bed.
- B. Take the medication with food.
- C. Sit upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication.
- D. Expect to have frequent headaches while on this medication.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed Alendronate is to sit upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication. Alendronate can cause esophageal irritation, and maintaining an upright position helps prevent this adverse effect by reducing the risk of reflux of the medication into the esophagus. Choice A is incorrect because Alendronate should be taken in the morning, at least 30 minutes before the first food, beverage, or medication of the day with a full glass of plain water. Choice B is incorrect because Alendronate should not be taken with food. Choice D is incorrect because frequent headaches are not a common side effect of Alendronate.
5. A nurse is assessing a client in active labor. The FHR baseline has been 100/min for 15 minutes. What condition should the nurse suspect?
- A. Maternal fever.
- B. Fetal anemia.
- C. Maternal hypoglycemia.
- D. Chorioamnionitis.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, with a fetal heart rate (FHR) baseline of 100/min for 15 minutes, the nurse should suspect maternal hypoglycemia. Maternal hypoglycemia can result in fetal bradycardia, which is defined as an FHR less than 110 beats per minute. Maternal hypoglycemia requires prompt intervention to prevent adverse outcomes for both the mother and the fetus. Maternal fever (Choice A) typically presents with tachycardia rather than bradycardia in the fetus. Fetal anemia (Choice B) is more likely to present with other signs such as pallor or tachycardia rather than bradycardia. Chorioamnionitis (Choice D) is characterized by maternal fever, uterine tenderness, and foul-smelling amniotic fluid, but it is not directly linked to the FHR baseline being 100/min.
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