ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is 30 minutes postoperative following an arterial thrombectomy. What should the nurse report?
- A. Chest pain.
- B. Muscle spasms.
- C. Cool, moist skin.
- D. Incisional pain.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, postoperative chest pain is a critical finding that must be reported promptly. Chest pain after an arterial thrombectomy could indicate serious complications such as myocardial infarction or pulmonary embolism. Muscle spasms and cool, moist skin are not the priority assessments in this situation. Incisional pain is common after surgery and is not typically a cause for immediate concern unless it is severe and accompanied by other symptoms.
2. A client with schizophrenia is beginning therapy with clozapine. Which statement indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I will need to have my blood work checked regularly while taking clozapine.
- B. I understand that clozapine may cause me to gain weight.
- C. I should report any signs of a fever while taking clozapine.
- D. I should discontinue clozapine once my symptoms improve.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because clients should continue taking clozapine even if their symptoms improve. Abruptly discontinuing the medication can lead to relapse. Choices A, B, and C are all correct statements regarding clozapine therapy. Regular blood work monitoring is necessary due to potential side effects, weight gain is a common side effect of clozapine, and reporting signs of fever is important as it can indicate a serious side effect of clozapine.
3. What is the most appropriate intervention for a patient with a suspected stroke?
- A. Administer IV fluids
- B. Perform a CT scan
- C. Perform a lumbar puncture
- D. Administer anticoagulants
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a patient with a suspected stroke is to perform a CT scan. A CT scan is crucial for diagnosing a stroke by visualizing any bleeding or blockages in the brain. Administering IV fluids (Choice A) may be necessary based on the patient's condition, but it is not the primary intervention for a suspected stroke. Performing a lumbar puncture (Choice C) is not indicated for stroke evaluation and may not provide relevant information. Administering anticoagulants (Choice D) is a treatment option for certain types of strokes but should be based on the CT scan results and specific guidelines.
4. A nurse is administering digoxin 0.125 mg Po to an adult client. For which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
- A. Potassium level 4.2 mEq/L
- B. Apical pulse 58/min
- C. Digoxin level 1 ng/ml
- D. Constipation for 2 days
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. An apical pulse below 60/min indicates bradycardia, a potential sign of digoxin toxicity. The nurse should report this finding to the provider for further evaluation and possible adjustment of the digoxin dose. Choice A, a potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L, is within the normal range (3.5-5.0 mEq/L) and does not indicate toxicity. Choice C, a digoxin level of 1 ng/ml, is within the therapeutic range (0.5-2 ng/ml) and is not suggestive of toxicity. Choice D, constipation for 2 days, is not directly related to digoxin administration and would not require an immediate report to the provider.
5. How should a healthcare professional monitor a patient with a central line for infection?
- A. Monitor the dressing site daily
- B. Check for redness and swelling
- C. Monitor for fever
- D. Flush the central line
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Monitoring the dressing site daily is crucial for detecting early signs of infection in patients with central lines. Checking for redness and swelling (choice B) is important but may indicate a more advanced stage of infection. Monitoring for fever (choice C) can also be a sign of infection, but it is a later manifestation. Flushing the central line (choice D) is necessary for maintaining patency but does not directly monitor for infection.
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