ATI RN
ATI Comprehensive Exit Exam 2023 With NGN
1. A nurse is assessing a client who is 30 minutes postoperative following an arterial thrombectomy. What should the nurse report?
- A. Chest pain.
- B. Muscle spasms.
- C. Cool, moist skin.
- D. Incisional pain.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this scenario, postoperative chest pain is a critical finding that must be reported promptly. Chest pain after an arterial thrombectomy could indicate serious complications such as myocardial infarction or pulmonary embolism. Muscle spasms and cool, moist skin are not the priority assessments in this situation. Incisional pain is common after surgery and is not typically a cause for immediate concern unless it is severe and accompanied by other symptoms.
2. A healthcare professional is assessing a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following findings should the healthcare professional report to the provider?
- A. Urine output of 80 mL/hr
- B. Blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg
- C. Serum creatinine 2.8 mg/dL
- D. Heart rate of 72/min
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. A serum creatinine level of 2.8 mg/dL indicates impaired kidney function and should be reported to the healthcare provider. Elevated serum creatinine levels are indicative of decreased kidney function and potential progression of chronic kidney disease. Choices A, B, and D are within normal ranges and do not signify immediate concerns related to kidney disease. Urine output of 80 mL/hr is appropriate, a blood pressure of 140/90 mm Hg is considered prehypertensive but not acutely concerning, and a heart rate of 72/min falls within the normal range.
3. In an emergency department following a community disaster, a healthcare provider is performing triage for multiple clients. To which of the following types of injuries should the provider assign the highest priority?
- A. Below-the-knee amputation.
- B. Fractured tibia.
- C. 95% full-thickness body burn.
- D. 10 cm laceration to the forearm.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During disaster triage, clients with severe injuries that are immediately life-threatening and have a high likelihood of mortality without intervention are assigned the highest priority. A below-the-knee amputation falls into this category as it indicates a critical injury that requires immediate attention to prevent further complications or loss of life. Fractured tibia, a 95% full-thickness body burn, and a 10 cm laceration to the forearm, while serious, do not pose the same level of immediate life-threatening risk as a below-the-knee amputation in the context of disaster triage.
4. A nurse is providing dietary teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin. Which of the following client statements indicates an understanding of the teaching?
- A. I will avoid eating leafy green vegetables while taking this medication.
- B. I will increase my intake of calcium-rich foods.
- C. I will avoid foods high in vitamin K while taking this medication.
- D. I will take this medication at bedtime to avoid dizziness.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Clients taking warfarin should avoid foods high in vitamin K, as it can interfere with the effectiveness of the medication.
5. A client is being discharged two days after a mastectomy. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Wear a tight-fitting bra for support.
- B. Avoid lifting heavy objects for at least 6 weeks.
- C. Sleep on the affected side to promote healing.
- D. Begin arm exercises 24 hours after surgery.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to avoid lifting heavy objects for at least 6 weeks after a mastectomy. This is important to prevent complications and promote proper healing. Choice A is incorrect because tight-fitting bras can increase the risk of lymphedema and discomfort. Choice C is incorrect as sleeping on the affected side can cause discomfort and interfere with healing. Choice D is incorrect as initiating arm exercises too soon after surgery can strain the surgical site and hinder recovery.
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