a nurse is assessing a client who has schizophrenia and is taking chlorpromazine which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adver
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ATI Exit Exam 180 Questions Quizlet

1. A nurse is assessing a client who has schizophrenia and is taking chlorpromazine. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an adverse effect of the medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sedation. Chlorpromazine, an antipsychotic medication, commonly causes sedation as an adverse effect. Weight gain (choice A) is a potential side effect of some antipsychotic medications, but it is not specifically associated with chlorpromazine. Dry mouth (choice B) is a common anticholinergic side effect of many medications but is not a prominent adverse effect of chlorpromazine. Diarrhea (choice D) is not a typical adverse effect of chlorpromazine.

2. A nurse is assessing a client who has dehydration. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. Tachycardia is a common sign of dehydration because the body tries to compensate for the reduced fluid volume by increasing the heart rate. Bradycardia (choice A) is not typically seen in dehydration as the body tries to maintain perfusion. Increased skin turgor (choice B) is actually a sign of dehydration, but tachycardia is a more specific finding. A bounding pulse (choice D) is associated with conditions like hyperthyroidism or aortic regurgitation, not dehydration.

3. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for levothyroxine. Which of the following statements should the nurse include?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Instructing the client to take levothyroxine in the morning is important to prevent insomnia, a common side effect of this medication. Choice A is incorrect as levothyroxine should be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is inaccurate because weight loss, not weight gain, is a potential side effect of levothyroxine. Choice D is not necessary as clients do not need to avoid foods containing iodine while taking levothyroxine.

4. A client is receiving intermittent enteral tube feedings. Which of the following places the client at risk for aspiration?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients with a history of gastroesophageal reflux disease are at risk for aspiration due to the potential of regurgitation, which can lead to aspiration of stomach contents into the lungs. Choice B (receiving a high-osmolarity formula) can lead to issues like diarrhea or dehydration but is not directly related to aspiration. Choice C (sitting in a high-Fowler's position during the feeding) is actually a preventive measure to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choice D (a residual of 65 mL 1 hr post-feeding) is a concern for delayed gastric emptying but not a direct risk factor for aspiration.

5. A nurse is assessing a newborn who was delivered at 32 weeks of gestation. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Lanugo covering the skin. Lanugo, a fine downy hair, is a common finding in newborns delivered prematurely at 32 weeks gestation. Choice A (Dry, cracked skin) is incorrect as premature infants often have translucent and delicate skin. Choice C (Vernix caseosa covering the skin) is incorrect as vernix, a waxy substance, is more commonly seen in full-term newborns. Choice D (Creases covering the soles of the feet) is incorrect as creases on the soles of the feet are a normal finding in term newborns, not specifically related to prematurity.

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